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2011-10-15T02:38:00.000-07:00

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2011-08-05T03:50:00.000-07:00

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2011-07-16T06:39:00.000-07:00

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2011-04-09T11:36:00.000-07:00

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2011-02-19T04:35:00.000-08:00

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2011-01-18T00:49:00.000-08:00

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Related IBM Lotus Exams:

LOT-980 IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 Sys Admin Operating Fundamentals

LOT-981 IBM Lotus Notes 8.5 Building the Infrastructure

LOT-982 Administering IBM LotusQuickr8.1 Services for WebShperePortal

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2011-01-15T00:13:00.000-08:00

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000-979 Power Systems with POWER7 and IBM i Technical Sales Skills - v1

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2010-10-21T07:16:00.000-07:00

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2010-09-29T11:07:00.002-07:00

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2010-09-29T11:07:00.001-07:00

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2010-06-27T19:06:00.000-07:00

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2010-04-17T09:45:00.000-07:00

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350-018 CCIE Pre-Qualification Test for Security (CCIE Written)
350-018-LAB CCIE Pre-Qualification Test for Security (Lab Exam)
350-020 CCIE SP Optical Qualification Exam
350-021 CCIE SP Cable Qualification Exam
350-023 CCIE SP WAN Switching
350-026 CCIE SP Content Networking ENU
350-029 CCIE SP Written Exam
350-029-LAB CCIE Service Provider Lab exam
350-030 CCIE Voice Written Exam
350-030-LAB CCIE Voice Lab exam
350-040 CCIE Storage Networking
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CCIE-RS-LAB CCIE-RS-LAB (Routing & Switching)
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TestKing IBM 000-355 iseries system administration v5r2

2010-04-08T04:21:00.000-07:00

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About IBM Certified Database Administrator — DB2 9 DBA for Linux UNIX and Windows
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Path 1 requires 2 tests :
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IBM DB2 700 – DB2 V8.1 Family Fundamentals
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IBM DB2 700 – DB2 V8.1 Family Fundamentals
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2010-01-19T05:51:00.000-08:00

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IBM 000-078 eServer BladeCenter certification

2009-12-26T19:05:00.000-08:00

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2009-12-07T01:23:00.000-08:00

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2009-11-15T18:04:00.000-08:00

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000-100 braindumps, 000-100 exam questions, IBM 000-100 torrent, 000-100 study guide, 000-100 PDF, 000-100 VCE download, 000-100 training, 000-100 p4s

2009-10-12T11:28:00.000-07:00

(000-100) Enterprise Technical Support for AIX and Linux

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Free 000-100 Sample Questions:

1. What command is used to create an application Workload Partition?
A. mkwpar
B. crwpar
C. wparexec
D. mkappwpar
Answer: C

2. A customer wants to use Live Partition Mobility for system maintenance. What is the minimum requirement?
A. PowerHA
B. Virtual I/O server 1.4
C. PowerVM Standard Edition
D. PowerVM Enterprise Edition
Answer: D

3. A customer has a requirement for a new LPAR to run SUSE Linux using a SCSI adapter that is not currently supported in Linux. Which of the following solutions should be recommended?
A. Assign the adapter to a VIO Server.
B. Use AIX drivers to install the adapter in the Linux LPAR.
C. Use Linux Affinity in AIX to move the application from SUSE to AIX.
D. NFS mount the disks from an AIX LPAR hosting the SCSI adapter, to the Linux LPAR.
Answer: A

4. A system administrator has received a sysplan file to configure a new server. Which of the following is the method to deploy the new server with minimal effort?
A. Copy file on HMC and deploy partitions.
B. Send file to IBM deployment portal for conversion.
C. Copy the file to the managed system and run the deploy application.
D. Execute file in System Planning tool and chose destination server to automatically deploy partitions.
Answer: A

5. Which tool is the most cost and time effective for specifying adapter placement on new orders?
A. HMC
B. System planning tool
C. Tivoli Provisioning Manager
D. System planning tool + Workload estimator
Answer: B

6. How does a Power 570 need to be installed for optimum cooling?
A. With empty space at the top for free airflow
B. With empty space at the bottom for free airflow
C. In a cold/warm row setup with the hot-row at the back
D. In a cold/warm row setup with the hot-row at the front
Answer: C

7. What is the minimum number of power cable(s) that must be connected to power up a 16-core POWER 570 without errors in the managed frame?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: D

8. A customer has a new POWER6 system with 2 partitions that require a large amount of TCP network traffic to pass between them for backup purposes. Which solution provides the greatest throughput?
A. Virtual Ethernet
B. Integrated Virtual Ethernet (IVE)
C. One 10Gb Ethernet adapter assigned to each partition
D. Separate Host Ethernet Adapters (HEA) assigned to each partition
Answer: B

9. A customer has ordered a Power 570 with only 4 dual port fibre cards. Which configuration would allow 4 LPARs on this server to have multiple paths, with no single point of failure, for each SAN connection?
A. Assign each LPAR 2 fibre ports, each from a different fibre adapter
B. Dual VIO servers with 2 cards per server and mapping via virtual SCSI adapters
C. One VIO server mapping disks using dual virtual SCSI adapters from the 4 adapters
D. Assign each LPAR a fibre card and ensure each port is mapped to a separate fibre switch
Answer: B

10. Why is the "dyntrk" attribute of fcs adapters in AIX important?
A. It enables automatic discovery of cabling changes.
B. It enables fibre channel data packet dynamic tracing.
C. It allows the fibre card in the server to be relocated dynamically.
D. When using an SVC it allows the target LUNs to be migrated to different fabric.
Answer: A

11. A company has four LPARs configured as shown:
8 x 4.2GHz CPUs
16GB Memory
4 LPARs
LPAR 1: Test 1 CPU, 2GB Memory, 1 Fibre Channel HBA, AIX
LPAR 2: Development 1 CPU, 2GB Memory, 1 Fibre Channel HBA, AIX LPAR 3: Prod 3 CPUs, 6GB Memory, 1 Fibre Channel HBA, AIX
LPAR 4: Web App 3 CPUs, 6GB Memory, 1 Fibre Channel HBA, SUSE Linux
Utilization over a 30 day period
LPAR 1: Average utilization was 15%, Peak utilization was 100% LPAR 2: Average utilization was 25%, Peak utilization was 100% LPAR 3: Average utilization was 50%, Peak utilization was 90% LPAR 4: Average utilization was 35%, Peak utilization was 100%
----------------------------------------------------------------
If there is a requirement for all 4 LPARs to be assigned to a shared pool, which of the following best describes the profile requirements?
A. LPARs 1 and 2, uncapped, SMT on, Weights between 25-30, min CPU 0.1, max CPU 1.0
LPARs 3 and 4, capped, SMT on, Weights between 100-130, min CPU 2.7, max CPU 3.0
B. LPARs 1 and 2, capped, SMT on, Weights between 25-30, min CPU 0.1, max CPU 1.0
LPARs 3 and 4, uncapped, SMT on, Weights between 100-130, min CPU 2.7, max CPU 3.0
C. LPARs 1 and 2, capped, SMT on, Weights between 100-130, min CPU 0.1, max CPU 1.0
LPARs 3 and 4, uncapped, SMT on, Weights between 25-30, min CPU 2.7, max CPU 3.0
D. LPARs 1 and 2, uncapped, SMT off, Weights between 25-30, min CPU 0.1, max CPU 1.0
LPARs 3 and 4, capped, SMT on, Weights between 100-130, min CPU 2.7, max CPU 3.0
Answer: B

12. A customer is planning to consolidate their existing servers currently running AIX 5.3 to a POWER6 570.
The customer has a test environment, a development environment and a production environment for two applications. Both the test and Development environments are very small and are only utilized when new releases are being developed and tested. They require less than 1 CPU each.
Both production applications require 2 CPUs for day-to-day operation and can require up to an additional 2 CPUs each during abrupt peak requirements. With performance in mind, what is the optimal design for the LPARs?
A. Use micro-partitioning for test and development environments, and DLPAR for the production environment.
B. Create workload partitions for all test, development, and production environments to keep production prioritized.
C. Use micro-partitioning for test and development environment, and shared processor pool for the production environment.
D. Create standard LPARs for all test, development, and production environment to keep all partitions separate and isolated.
Answer: C

13. A customer is implementing a dual Virtual IO server environment to service 4 LPARs. If each operating system image requires 18 GB of disk space, what is the minimum amount of SCSI resources necessary?
A. Two SCSI paths and two 73GB SCSI disks
B. Two SCSI paths and two 146GB SCSI disks
C. Four SCSI paths and four 73GB SCSI disks
D. Two dual port SCSI RAID adapters with two 73GB SCSI disks
Answer: B

14. A Power 570 is planned to run with a dual VIOS environment. The VIOS should be equipped for maximum resilience to provide LUN access to both VIO servers. What are the minimum requirements?
A. Two dual port adapters
B. Four dual port adapters
C. Two single port adapters
D. Four single port adapters
Answer: D

15. Customer wants to be able to access a GPFS filesystem from an NFS client, even if the GPFS node exporting the filesystem fails. What must be used to achieve this?
A. Use automount on the client.
B. Use NFS V3 or NFS V4 Replicas.
C. Use HANFS from both GPFS nodes.
D. Use NFS V4 Replicas from 2 GPFS nodes.
Answer: D

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IBM 000-046 exam,000-046 braindumps,000-046 study guide,000-046 torrent,000-046 PDF,000-046 VCE rapidshare

2009-09-23T06:38:00.000-07:00

IBM 000-046 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-046 Sample Questions:

1. Which type of DOORS user can create projects?
A. Edit DXL
B. Standard
C. Project Manager
D. Database Manager
Answer: D

2. Which statement is true about Private, Public, and Custom views?
A. All users have modify access to a Public view.
B. The Standard view can have custom access rights.
C. A view can only be made Private if the For Module check box is selected.
D. Access rights for a Custom view are inherited from the currently displayed view.
Answer: D

3. Which two module attributes can be used to generate a report about changes to the module? (Choose two.)
A. Created By
B. Created On
C. Last Modified By
D. Last Modified On
Answer: CD

4. According to the Standish Group, what percent of IT project failures result from poor requirements gathering, analysis, and management?
A. 30 to 40 percent
B. 40 to 50 percent
C. 50 to 60 percent
D. 60 to 70 percent
Answer: D

5. Which challenge faced by IT projects is most directly addressed with Requirements Management tools?
A. cost
B. time
C. scope
D. compliance
Answer: C

6. What is Requirements Management used for at the board level?
A. to develop tools
B. for project management
C. to develop a corporate vision
D. for portfolio and program management
Answer: C

7. Which type of requirement on the V-model focuses on design and implementation?
A. system
B. operational
C. component
D. stakeholder
Answer: C

8. When tracking development traceability along the V-model, what satisfies stakeholder requirements?
A. vision
B. system tests
C. acceptance tests
D. system requirements
Answer: D

9. What is NOT a characteristic of good requirements?
A. clear
B. correct
C. complete
D. ambiguous
Answer: D

10. What are three characteristics of a good requirements set? (Choose three.)
A. modular
B. sufficient
C. consistent
D. exhaustive
Answer: ABC

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IBM 000-377 exam questions,000-377 study guide,000-377 torrent,000-377 PDF VCE rapidshare,000-377 dumps

2009-09-23T06:12:00.000-07:00

IBM 000-377 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-377 Sample Questions:

1. Which of the following is an option given in the First Steps application that runs automatically after installation?
A. Start the server.
B. Execute wsadmin.
C. Configure resources.
D. Run the Snoop servlet.
Answer: A

2. Which one of the following can be used to instantiate resource adapter classes for establishing and maintaining resource connections?
A. a data source
B. connection factories
C. connection pool settings
D. a JMS activation specification
Answer: B

3. global security is turned on for a federated cell using a file-based federated repository. The administrator created a new security domain called App1Domain using local operating system registry and mapping it to the application server. The administrator also created a new local operating system user ID App1Admin?
Which one of the following is true when the new security domain is enabled to secure Application1?
A. The administrator can access Application1.
B. The administrator can disable Application1 security.
C. App1Admin can disable Application1 security.
D. App1Admin can access the administrative console.
Answer: B

4. Aside from the administrative console and the addNode command, what other facilities does WebSphere Application Server provide for federating nodes into cells?
A. wsadmin
B. The administrative agent
C. The Profile Management Tool (PMT)
D. Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy Module
Answer: C

5. When backing up WebSphere Application Server configuration and runtime settings, which of the following commands would be relevant?
A. backupConfig -location location
B. restoreConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
C. manageprofiles -backupProfile -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
D. wsadmin -backupConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
Answer: C

6. What can the system administrator do to distribute incoming HTTP traffic across a farm of Web servers?
A. Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the cluster
B. Implement the Tivoli Access Manager as a load balancer
C. Implement the caching proxy server component of the Edge Components
D. Use the Load Balancer component of the Edge Components
Answer: D

7. What is the sequence of components which would typically be involved in the flow of a request from a Web browser to a servlet?
A. External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and EJB Container
B. Load Balancer, Embedded HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and Web Container
C. Edge Component, HTTP Server Plug-in, external HTTP Server, and Web Container
D. External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in, embedded HTTP Server and Web Container
Answer: D

8. How could an administrator manage multiple stand-alone application servers on different hosts in a network?
By using:
A. a job manager which administers multiple application server nodes through administrative agents.
B. a deployment manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their node agents.
C. a high availability manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their administrative agents.
D. an administrative agent which administers multiple application server nodes through their administrative service.
Answer: A

9. Which type of server is recommended to be placed in the demilitarized zone (DMZ)?
A. Generic servers
B. Application servers
C. Managed HTTP servers
D. Unmanaged HTTP servers
Answer: D

10. What is the advantage of deploying more than one messaging engine and linking them together in a topology that has multiple interconnected service integration buses (SIBus)?
A. Enable protocol transformation between buses.
B. Improve the availability of the persistent storage.
C. Spread messaging workload across multiple servers.
D. Preserve message ordering through the messaging engines.
Answer: C

11. Why does IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment utilize node groups to implement a distributed environment? To:
A. segment multiple security domains within a WebSphere cell.
B. define the logical grouping of application servers to scale horizontally or vertically.
C. enable mixed nodes with different capabilities within the same cell for administration purposes.
D. allow application servers having the same applications installed to be grouped logically for workload management.
Answer: C

12. A system administrator wants to improve response time and system load of a Web application running in a clustered environment.
What might the system administrator attempt to decrease the response time of the Web application?
A. Configure dynamic caching
B. Enable memory-to-memory replication
C. Configure session replication to use a database.
D. Ensure that all cluster members are in the same node group.
Answer: A

13. A system administrator needs to modify the configuration of an enterprise application within a flexible management environment. The system administrator can make the modification using wsadmin scripts by connecting to which of the following components?
A. Node agent
B. Job manager
C. Work manager
D. Administrative agent
E. Deployment manager
Answer: BE

14. What would have to be configured in order to implement memory-to-memory HTTP Session persistence?
A. Dynamic cache service and HTTP plug-in
B. Synchronization service and embedded Web server
C. Distributed environment settings in the web containers
D. Fast Response Cache Accelerator (FRCA) and external Web server
Answer: C

15. When configuring automated transaction peer recovery for recovering in-flight transactions from the transaction log, what is required from the file system?
A. RAID disks must be used to host the transaction log
B. Exclusive read only file locks and the ability to invalidate them
C. File locking must be disabled for Network File System Version 4 (NFSv4)
D. Lease-based exclusive locks on files
Answer: D

16. What are the three possible replication types for the dynamic caching service?
A. Client mode
B. Server mode
C. Not shared
D. Push only
E. Both push and pull
F. Broadcast mode
Answer: CDE

17. What is the Data Replication Service (DRS) used for? Please choose three from the following.
A. Node agents
B. Web servers
C. Caching Proxy
D. Dynamic cache replication
E. HTTP session persistence and failover
F. Stateful session EJB persistence and failover
Answer: DEF

18. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a flexible management topology and the network deployment cell?
A. Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model.
B. Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell.
C. The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell.
D. The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment manager.
Answer: A

19. In order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management environment, which one of the following steps must be completed?
A. Register directly with the job manager.
B. Register with the node agent on the job managers host.
C. Register with an administrative agent on the job managers host
D. First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager.
Answer: A

20. Which of the following items best gives a reason to perform an unattended installation of WebSphere Application Server?
A. The installation for the particular target platform is being done for the first time.
B. The installation for the particular target platform has been done before and will be repeated in the future.
C. The installation for WebSphere Application Server would initially not be able to include administrative security.
D. The installation for the particular target platform is expected to require a lot of adjustments to be done over several installation attempts.
Answer: B

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IBM 000-419 dumps, 000-419 exam, 000-419 test questions, 000-419 study guide, 000-419 practice test, 000-419 pdf, 000-419 vce testking download

2009-08-12T06:09:00.000-07:00

Exam Code: 000-419
Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere Quality Stage v8 Examination
Last Update: Aug, 2009

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IBM 000-419 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-419 Sample Questions:

1. When running Word Investigation, producing a pattern report will help you do what?
A. Refine a standardization rule set.
B. Decide which fields to use for blocking fields.
C. Discover inconsistencies in data type representation.
D. Identify which patterns should survive.
Answer: A

2. A client states that phone data is in the North American format: 999-999-9999. Which field mask would determine if the client is correct?
A. C
B. T
C. X
D. N
Answer: B

3. What is a result when you increase the match cut-off setting?
A. It minimizes the false positives.
B. It minimizes the false negatives.
C. It adds agreement weight.
D. It subtracts agreement weight.
Answer: A

4. Which technique can be used to reduce the processing time of the Match Frequency stage?
A. Create a frequency file for all the fields in the input file.
B. Create a frequency file for only the fields used for blocking and matching.
C. Create a frequency file for only the fields used for matching.
D. Create a frequency file for only the fields used for blocking.
Answer: C

5. What are the two Match Specification probabilities that can be configured? (Choose two.)
A. m probability
B. u probability
C. r probability
D. pi probability
Answer: A, B

6. Which three components must be specified to configure a match specification? (Choose three.)
A. frequency file
B. match test database
C. Standardize stage
D. sample data set
E. Match stage
Answer: A, B, D

7. Which two columns are outputs of the Match Frequency stage? (Choose two.)
A. qsFreqAddressLine1
B. qsFreqFirstName
C. qsFreqCount
D. qsFreqColumnID
Answer: C, D

8. Which two processing methods should use candidate selection? (Choose two.)
A. real-time
B. initial load
C. one-time load
D. delta load
Answer: A, D

9. Which three types of rule set overrides are valid? (Choose three.)
A. column type overrides
B. classification overrides
C. output pattern overrides
D. unhandled pattern overrides
E. input text overrides
Answer: B, D, E

10. Which file contains the definition of the output structure of the standardize stage?
A. Classification table
B. Pattern-action
C. Dictionary file
D. Lookup tables
Answer: C

more free IBM 000-419 exam questions

We are all well aware that a major problem in the IT industry is that there is a lack of quality study materials. Our 000-419 Preparation Exam Material provides you everything you will need to take a certification examination. Details are researched and produced by Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, logical and verified explanations for the answers. You may get questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key.

IBM 000-530 exam, 000-530 study guide, 000-530 dumps, 000-530 torrent, 000-530 testking download, 000-530 pdf ebook

2009-08-12T06:07:00.000-07:00

Like actual certification exams our 000-530 Exam is in multiple-choice questions (MCQs). After purchasing our products you are just a step away from testing for certification. Still not convinced? Try our free samples or choose to buy your 000-530 Practice Exam now!

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Free 000-530 Sample Questions:

1. Which of the following is true regarding how SiteProtector can be deployed?
A. It can only be deployed as a stand-alone server or as an appliance.
B. It can be deployed in a stand-alone or distributed architecture.
C. It must be deployed by IBM ISS Professional Services.
D. It must be deployed with all Network IPS appliances.
Answer: B

2. Which component commits IDS events to the SiteProtector Database?
A. IDS Appliance
B. Agent Manager
C. Event Collector
D. Secure Sync
Answer: C

3. Which policy contains signature exceptions for specific VLANs?
A. Firewall
B. User Defined Events
C. Protection Domains
D. Connection Events
Answer: C

4. At the beginning of 2009, approximately how many URL's were contained in the IBM ISS Web Filter and Antispam Database?
A. 3 Billion
B. 9 Billion
C. 23 Million
D. 60 Million
Answer: B

5. Which of the following protocols is protected by the Proventia MFS appliance antivirus engine?
A. IMAP
B. SMTP
C. POP2
D. SFTP
Answer: B

6. The Proventia GX4004 can be used inline prevention mode with how many segments?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Six
D. Eight
Answer: A

7. Which of the following products competes with IBM Enterprise Vulnerability Assessment?
A. Snort
B. Cisco NAC
C. Qualys
D. TippingPoint
Answer: C

8. Proventia Desktop uses which antivirus engine?
A. Sophos
B. Norton
C. ClamAV
D. BitDefender
Answer: D

9. A Stealth Port Scan consists of which of the following?
A. Single packet with the PUSH flag set
B. Full TCP handshake
C. Single SYN packet
D. Single packet with the URG flag set
Answer: C

10. What function does the Agent Manager provide in SiteProtector?
A. Provides central alert storage and analysis
B. Acts as a communication channel for the Proventia appliances
C. Communicates vulnerability assessments to Proventia appliances
D. Compares, analyzes, and reports all Proventia events
Answer: B

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000-550 dumps, 000-550 exam questions, 000-550 exam, 000-550 braindumps, 000-550 study guide, 000-550 pdf torrent, 000-550 vce testking rapidshare

2009-08-12T06:05:00.000-07:00

IBM 000-550 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-550 Sample Questions:

1. To administer a HotStandby database you need which privilege?
A. Sys_Sync_Admin_Role
B. Sys_Console_Role
C. Sys_Hotstandby_Role
D. Sys_Replication_Role
Answer: B

2. To execute the HotStandby administrative commands, which type of access privilege would be needed?
A. SYS_ADMIN_SYNC_ROLE
B. SYNC_ADMIN_ROLE
C. ADMIN_CONSOLE_ROLE
D. SYS_CONSOLE_ROLE
Answer: D

3. How many different installations of solidDB binaries can exist on the same host?
A. one
B. as many as can fit
C. one per release of solidDB
D. one per version of solidDB
Answer: B

4. What are two possible conflict resolution methods between solidDB and a back-end database? (Choose two.)
A. Source wins
B. Reference
C. Trigger
D. UserExit
E. Alert user
Answer: A, D

5. It is possible when using solsql to run scripts either interactively or nested within another script. Which special character is used to identify that you want to execute a script file?
A. *
B. @
C. #
D. !
Answer: B

6. Which ADMIN command is used to shut down the solidDB database?
A. shutdown
B. disconnect
C. terminate
D. close
Answer: A

7. To set the log persistence level server-wide, which parameter would be set in the solid.ini file?
A. LogLevel
B. Isolation
C. DurabilityLevel
D. Adaptive
Answer: C

8. solidDB can store Unicode characters. Which two data types should you use to store Unicode? (Choose two.)
A. CLOB
B. CHAR
C. WCHAR
D. VARCHAR
E. WVARCHAR
Answer: C, E

9. A conflict detection and resolution method within CDC is only available when you map your tables using ______.
A. Standard
B. One-to-One
C. Consolidation
D. Bidirectional replication
Answer: A

10. You want to map multiple source tables to multiple target tables in the same subscription. These tables share the same table structure and similar table names. Which mapping method should you use?
A. Standard
B. Mirror
C. LiveAudit
D. One-to-One
Answer: D

cheat-test 000-j03 free study guide, ibm 000-j03 training boot camp

2009-07-19T12:44:00.000-07:00

000-J03 IBM Sys I Entry Level for BPs - Tech.Mastery Test V1

IBM 000-J03 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-J03 Sample Questions:

Q: 1 Users running iSeries Access on their personal computers cannot obtain a sign-on screen. Twinax terminals are able to obtain a connection. What could be cause of the personal computer connection problem?
A. TCP/IP is not active
B. Subsystem QBATCH is not active
C. Subsystem QINTER is not active
D. The system is in a restricted state
Answer: A

Q: 2 Where is the assistance level for individuals specified?
A. In the user profile
B. In the job description
C. In the system value QASTLVL
D. In the workstation device description
Answer: A

Q: 3 Which of the following components included with iSeries Navigator is used to manage tasks across one or more systems simultaneously?
A. Management Central
B. Simple Cluster Management
C. Symmetric Multiprocessing
D. System Manager for iSeries
Answer: A

Q: 4 Which of the following options are available from the CL command WRKSPLF (work with spool files) screen?
A. Send, Save, Delete
B. Reroute, Send, Change
C. Attributes, Save, Hold
D. Change, Release, Attributes
Answer: D

Q: 5 A customer ran the WRKQRY command and received a message that the Query for i5/OS licensed program is not available. The licensed program 5722-QU1 had been installed.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. Required components for the base option have not been installed
B. The Query for i5/OS (5722-QU1) licensed program is set in restricted mode
C. The license key for Query for i5/OS (5722-QU1) licensed program was not entered
D. The Query for i5/OS (5722-QU1) licensed program has an installed status of *error
Answer: C

Q: 6 Which values does the CL command CHGSYSVAL SYSVAL (QTOTJOB) VALUE(750) set?
A. The total number of jobs in QCTF
B. The total number of jobs in the system message queue
C. The total number of active jobs allowed on the system
D. The total number of active jobs for which storage must be allocated
Answer: D

Q: 7 A customer is planning to manage a system using iSeries Navigator. Which of the following licensed programs is required before iSeries Navigator can be used?
A. IBM Connect 2.0 LPP (5733-CO2)
B. XML Toolkit for iSeries (5733-XT1)
C. IBM iSeries Access for Windows (5722-XE1)
D. IBM WebSphere Application Server (5722-WAS)
Answer: C

Q: 8 How can a system administrator obtain detailed information on a message logged in the QSYSOPR message queue?
A. Use the DSPJOBLOG command
B. Place the cursor on the message, press F1
C. Use the DSPMSGD command to obtain the information
D. Use the DSPLOG command to find the entry, and press F1 on the message
Answer: B

Q: 9 If a system is placed in a restricted state, which subsystem would still be running?
A. QCTL
B. QCMN
C. QINTER
D. QBATCH
Answer: A

Q: 10 A customer has installed a System i520 Express Growth with RAID and requires more disk space. How many disk units can be added to provide the maximum disk space, WITHOUT requiring additional PCI-X I/O towers?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

Q: 11 Which iSeries Navigator category would be used to configure Electronic Service Agent and ECS for access through the Internet?
A. Basic Operations
B. Management Central
C. Configuration and Service
D. Network
Answer: D

Q: 12 A customer is upgrading their i520 IBM Operating System from V5R3 to V5R4. What must be done on the system before the installation can be done?
A. Increase the memory
B. Add additional disk units
C. Allocate an alternate IPL device
D. Allocate space for the license internal code
Answer: D

Q: 13 Which save option should be used before loading and applying an IBM cumulative PTF?
A. Select Option 21. Save Entire System from the GO SAVE menu
B. Select Option 23. Save All User Data from the GO SAVE menu
C. Select Option 22. Save System Data Only from the GO SAVE menu
D. Select Option 41. All IBM libraries other than system library from the GO SAVE menu
Answer: A

Q: 14 Which of the following licensed programs is included in the System i520 Express Entry configuration?
A. Query for i5/OS (5722-QU1)
B. iSeries Access for Windows (5722-XE1)
C. WebSphere Development Studio (5722-WDS)
D. WebSphere Application Server Express (5722-IWE/WE1)
Answer: D

Q: 15 A system administrator wants to set up a daily backup schedule to save all user libraries and automatically print detailed reports after the backup has completed. Which of the following can be used to accomplish this?
A. Select iSeries Navigator - Backup Policies, and create a daily backup schedule.
B. Select option 21 and Save entire system on menu GO SAVE and set the start time to the desired time.
C. Create an entry in the iSeries Job Scheduler to run a SAVLIB *NONSYS command for each day of the week you wish the backup to run.
D. Create an entry in the iSeries Job Scheduler to run the SAVLIB *ALLUSR command for each day of the week you wish the backup to run.
Answer: A

Q: 16 The security system value has been changed from security level 20 to security level 40. Which of the following must be executed to prevent a user from changing and deleting objects on the system?
A. Remove *ALLOBJ from the user profile.
B. Remove *SPLCTL and *JOBCTL from the user profile.
C. Change the object authority to *EXCLUDE for the user profile.
D. Change the limit capabilities option to *YES for the user profile
Answer: A

Q: 17 A customer with an installed system i520 Express (1200/60) wants to replace the base twinax console with a LAN console and install a 4811 IXS. In addition to replacing the FC #5540 Twinax console indicator with an FC #5553 Embedded Ethernet Console indicator, which of the following is the LEAST expensive solution?
A. Order 4811 IXS and PCI-X Expansion Tower 5095
B. Order 4811 IXS and PCI-X Expansion Tower 5094
C. Order 4811 IXS and PCI-X Expansion Tower 5790
D. Order 4811 IXS and remove the 9746 Twinax card
Answer: D

Q: 18 Which of the following needs to be completed after restoring user profiles?
A. RSTAUT
B. RSTCFG
C. RSTOBJ
D. RSTDLO
Answer: A

Q: 19 A customer wants to run a Web-based application on an i520 Express that requires 3200 CPW and 20 interactive CPW. Of the seven i520 Express configurations, which is the minimum configuration that satisfies this requirement?
A. Turbo
B. Growth
C. Growth + RAID
D. Entry Plus + RAID
Answer: A

Q: 20 A customer added new disk drives to their i520 Express that has RAID protection. What needs to be done after the new disk drives are configured?
A. Add the units to the ASP and start mirrored protection
B. Enable compression on all disks and add them to the ASP
C. Start device parity and then add the disk drives to the ASP
D. Add the disk drives to the ASP and then start device parity
Answer: C

Q: 21 Which are the four operating modes on the System i control panel?
A. Manual, Normal, Secure, Auto
B. Normal, Secure, Auto, Service
C. Auto, Normal, Restricted, Service
D. Secure, Manual, Normal, Restricted
Answer: A

Q: 22 A PTF was ordered and applied, and the status is showing ACN (Action needed). Where is the information found that explains what is required to fully apply this PTF?
A. Joblog
B. History log
C. Cumulative PTF package
D. Cover letter for the PTF
Answer: D

Q: 23 A customer with an installed System i520 Express needs to install one additional Ethernet adapter. They need to attach to 1Gbps LANs with enough flexibility to attach to lower speed LANs and only slot C04 is available. Which of the following satisfies the requirement?
A. 5701 - (single port) Ethernet adapter with UTP connections
B. 5700 - (single port) Ethernet adapter with Optical connections
C. 5706 - Smart IOA (dual port) Ethernet adapter with UTP connections
D. 5707 - Smart IOA (dual port) Ethernet adapter with Optical connections
Answer: C

Q: 24 Which of the following environments does the Virtual Partition Manager (VPM) support?
A. Two i5/OS partitions and two AIX Partitions
B. One i5/OS partition and four Linux Partitions
C. Two i5/OS partitions and two Linux Partitions
D. One i5/OS partition, Three Linux partitions and one AIX Partition
Answer: B

Q: 25 The System i architecture is represented by a hierarchy with four building blocks. Which of the following represents the order of the hierarchy, from the bottom to the top?
A. Application support, Licensed Internal Code (LIC), Operating System, Programming support
B. Licensed Internal Code (LIC), Operating System, Programming support, Application support
C. Operating System, Licensed Internal Code (LIC), Programming support, Application support
D. Licensed Internal Code (LIC), Programming support, Operating System, Application support
Answer: B

ibm 000-J02 test questions, 000-J02 cheat-test & testking dumps

2009-07-19T12:42:00.000-07:00

Q: 1 Which of the following is the least expensive upgrade option for a customer with System i5 520 Express Entry Plus who wishes to add significant Domino and Linux workloads?
A. Order Accelerator
B. Order processor upgrade to 520 Express Turbo
C. Order processor upgrade to 520 Express Growth
D. Order two additional DASD and 2GB of main memory
Answer: A

Q: 2 Which of the following is an advantage of the System i microprocessor design hierarchy?
A. It protects the applications from hardware technology changes.
B. It is specifically designed for compute-intensive applications.
C. It shares resources with multiple, heterogeneous, concurrent systems.
D. It offloads I/O and communication-intensive tasks from the central processor.
Answer: D

Q: 3 Which of the following allows applications or services running in a Linux partition to communicate to an i5/OS partition?
A. iSCSI
B. ODBC Connection
C. High Speed Link
D. Virtual Ethernet
Answer: D

Q: 4 Which feature of i5/OS provides workload management functions to optimize performance and maintain integrity?
A. i5/OS subsystems
B. Single Level Storage
C. IBM Virtualization Engine
D. Independent Auxiliary Storage Pool (iASP)
Answer: A

Q: 5 A System i5 prospect is starting to look for an ERP solution. What should be the first steps in the selling process?
A. Discuss their financial commitment to the project and their willingness to grow the project and budget if additional features are cost-justifiable.
B. Prepare a preliminary technical solution proposal document with numbers and timeframes for the customer's review.
C. Calculate the expected ROI through discussion with the customer to demonstrate value and benefits of proceeding.
D. Determine their budget and application requirements, and discuss references of similar solutions that are already operational.
Answer: D

Q: 6 A System i sales rep has proposed a System i5 Express solution to a customer. A broker recently presented the alternative of an older iSeries with similar cpw. How should the sales rep initially counter the used/second hand equipment proposal?
A. Present consultant reports and/or white papers showing System i Total Cost of Ownership benefits.
B. Explain that Express models have low-cost upgrade options and that upgrades from the older models have been withdrawn.
C. Discuss "hidden costs" of used equipment such as hardware maintenance, software tiers, shipping, SWMA, after-license cost, etc.
D. Contact the assigned IBM representative to provide a detailed pricing comparison and, if needed, pursue a special bid.
Answer: C

Q: 7 Which of the following provides the highest speed connectivity for disk and Virtual Ethernet when attaching an external xSeries?
A. PCI 2-Line WAN Adapter
B. PCI-X 1 Gb Ethernet LAN Adapter
C. PCI-X iSCSI Adapter
D. PCI-X Fibre Adapter
Answer: C

Q: 8 Which of the following is a reason to propose an external cable-attached tape drive instead of an internal tape drive?
A. Needed adapters and the drives themselves are typically less expensive for external tape solutions.
B. External tape drives allow more capacity per cartridge and/or tape library capabilities.
C. Customer needs to back up PCs managed by the System i (IXS/IXA/iSCSI), and this can only be done with switchable external drives.
D. Customer needs to save information on Quarter Inch Cartridge (QIC) media so they can exchange tapes with an older iSeries using that media.
Answer: B

Q: 9 Which of the following is an important software function that is new for V5R4?
A. Switchable IASPs
B. Virtual tape support
C. Cross-site mirroring
D. RAID-5 auxiliary cache
Answer: B

Q: 10 Which of the following is a benefit of consolidating multiple Linux servers on a System i server instead of on Intel?
A. Linux is included at no cost in System i Express Edition packages.
B. i5/OS applications simplify Linux configuration.
C. There are more Linux distribution options on System i.
D. Linux on System i optimizes utilization of system resources.
Answer: D

Q: 11 An Integrated xSeries Server or Adapter (IXS/IXA) can be used to do which of the following?
A. Connect a Blade Server to a System i.
B. Configure a Hardware Management Console (HMC).
C. Load and run Windows Server 2003 natively on a POWER processor.
D. Integrate Windows and i5/OS applications using a secure virtual network.
Answer: D

Q: 12 The Hardware Management Console (HMC) is used to do which of the following?
A. Activate the Accelerator.
B. Create and change partitions.
C. Configure a System i Ethernet adapter.
D. Install and manage an integrated System x adapter.
Answer: B

Q: 13 A prospect for System i5 Express is concerned about the strategic direction of the IBM System i product line. IBM's Systems Agenda speaks directly to this point. Which of the following is a characteristic of the IBM Systems Agenda?
A. IBM commits to virus-resistant systems.
B. IBM commits to consistent product announcement schedules.
C. IBM commits to flexible, open systems.
D. IBM commits to systems that provide the lowest cost of ownership.
Answer: C

Q: 14 Which of the following System i characteristics most contributes to rapid speed of deployment?
A. Pre-tested single entity operating system
B. Preloaded ISV applications
C. Adherence to industry standards
D. Simultaneous multithreading
Answer: A

Q: 15 Which of the following features of i5/OS has made the System i5 highly resistant to viruses?
A. Power Hypervisor
B. Single Level Store
C. Object-based architecture
D. Systems Licensed Internal Code (SLIC)
Answer: C

Q: 16 Which of the following describes software maintenance coverage for the IBM System i5 520 Express Edition announced in 2006?
A. Three years of software maintenance must be added to the System i5 520 Express.
B. One year of software maintenance is included in the price of the System i5 520 Express.
C. One or three years of software maintenance is optional for the System i5 520 Express.
D. Three years of software maintenance are included in the price of the System i5 520 Express.
Answer: B

Q: 17 A prospect for a System i5 Express Edition has a need for two i5/OS partitions. Which of the following best describes how the i5/OS licensing will be handled?
A. An i5/OS license is needed for each i5/OS partition.
B. i5/OS licensing must be purchased at an extra cost for each processor.
C. An additional i5/OS license is only needed if a third partition is needed.
D. The needed i5/OS licensing is included in the Express edition.
Answer: D

Q: 18 Which of the following best summarizes the characteristics of the IBM System i5 520 Express configurations?
A. Flexible hardware and software configurations with full 5250 capability
B. Flexible hardware and software configurations with limited 5250 capability
C. Predefined hardware and software configurations with full 5250 capability
D. Predefined hardware and software configurations with limited 5250 capability
Answer: D

Q: 19 Which of the following capabilities of System i maximizes usage of resources in a single system and is not available in a multiple, standalone Intel server environment?
A. Reliability, Availability, Scalability (RAS)
B. Micro-partitioning
C. Virtual tape
D. Business Resilience
Answer: B

Q: 20 The Accelerator for System i5 increases which of the following?
A. Interactive capabilities and memory
B. Processing power and memory
C. Processing power and the number of partitions
D. Number of partitions and interactive capability
Answer: C

IBM 000-J02 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-J02 Sample Questions:

000-135 IBM training

2009-07-14T09:15:00.000-07:00

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IBM 000-135 Exam - CertifySky.com

Free 000-135 Sample Questions:

1. HATS Web applications can be deployed to WebSphere Application Server running on which operating systems?
A. Windows, AIX, IBM I, z/OS, or Linux on z
B. IBM I or z/OS only
C. Linux on System i or System z only
D. Windows or Linux only
Answer: A

2. Which aspect of a HATS project CANNOT be migrated automatically?
A. screen customizations (.evnt files)
B. host connection properties in the .hco files
C. Javascript files (.js files)
D. screen capture files (.hsc files)
Answer: C

3. Users interact with an instance of a HATS rich client application using a transformation view. What is NOT a part of the transformation view?
A. toolbar
B. application keypad
C. OIA
D. transformation area
Answer: B

4. Which macro action CANNOT be used in conjunction with an Integration Object?
A. Conditional
B. Perform
C. PlayMacro
D. Trace
Answer: B

5. What is an invalid way to use macros in a HATS application?
A. as an action, such as the play macro action or the play macro transaction action
B. to connect or disconnect a particular host connection
C. as input into the wizard that generates a Web service
D. as a macro button on a transformation
Answer: C

6. Text replacement can be defined at various artifact levels. What is NOT a valid level to define text replacement?
A. project level
B. rendering item level
C. screen customization level
D. transformation level
Answer: D

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2009-07-14T09:05:00.000-07:00

IBM 000-M35 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-M35 Sample Questions:

1. What is the smallest unit of physical I/O in an IDS server?
A. Chunk
B. Extent
C. Page
D. Dbspace
Answer: C

2. In which of the following scenarios is IDS the best fit?
A. Applications with variable and dynamic data records
B. Large data warehouses requiring cubing and analytics
C. Applications requiring dedicated hardware as part of the solution
D. High-transaction OLTP workloads
Answer: D

3. What size businesses is IDS targeted to?
A. Medium-sized businesses only
B. Large, medium, and small businesses
C. Small businesses only
D. Small businesses with a team of database administrators
Answer: B

4. Which of the following is a key benefit of IDS?
A. Functional extensions can be added to support new business problem domains
B. Existing solutions do not scale as the business grows
C. Uptime of at most 80% can be achieved using continuous availability features
D. Databases must be administered by a local database administrator
Answer: A

5. Which of the following is a key benefit that allows IDS to excel in the small-medium business marketplace?
A. It only supports a small number of users
B. Data can be exported to flat files
C. Only a single IDS instance can be online and active at a time
D. Autonomic features offer near hands-free administration
Answer: D

6. Which of the following administrative processes can IDS handle automatically?
A. Storage provisioning
B. Statistics collection
C. Database schema optimization
D. Data re-distribution
Answer: B

7. The MACH11 high availability technology in IDS offers which of the following benefits?
A. The ability to replicate subsets of a database
B. The ability to create multiple secondary copies of the primary server
C. The ability to replicate data between different versions and editions of IDS
D. The ability to achieve redundancy using expensive hardware and third party software
Answer: B

8. Which statement about the OpenAdmin Tool (OAT) is true?
A. It is only available for IDS Express edition
B. It is a separate, add-on feature that is chargeable
C. It can manage hundreds of local or remote IDS instances
D. It can manage, monitor, and administer local databases only
Answer: C

9. Which of the following statements about MACH11 high availability technology is true?
A. It requires high speed interconnect technology between nodes
B. It works only in a shared disk environment
C. It requires additional technology for disaster recovery
D. It provides multi-site, geographically remote availability
Answer: D

10. A small dentist office uses IDS as the backend database for their operational system. A small Intel-based system with a single processor and 2 GB of memory is used. It also runs the Windows operating system. Which edition of IDS is the minimum required?
A. IDS Express Edition
B. IDS Workgroup Edition
C. IDS Enterprise Edition
D. IDS Developer Edition
Answer: A

000-019 Sample Questions - IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.8 Implementation

2009-07-14T08:40:00.000-07:00

IBM 000-019 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-019 Sample Questions:

1. Which Domain name is valid during an installation process?
A. itnmdomain
B. itnm-domain
C. ITNMDOMAIN
D. ITNM-DOMAIN
Answer: C

2.Which IP address must be specified as Network Address Translation (NAT) Gateway when adding a new NAT Gateway in IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition (Tivoli Network Manager)?
A. Public IP address of NAT Gateway
B. Private IP address of NAT Gateway
C. IP address of Tivoli Network Manager Server
D. Default Gateway IP address of Tivoli Network Manager Server
Answer: A

3. Which file needs to be configured to set the precedence of the events sent for Root Cause Analysis?
A. AmosSchema.cfg
B. NcoGateInserts.cfg
C. EntityEventToAlert.rule
D. SuppressContainedAlerts.rule
Answer: B

4. Which script must be run on the Tivoli Integrated Portal server to extract the events from OMNIbus so that data in reports can be viewed?
A. /products/tcr/bin/configClient.sh
B. /products/tcr/bin/startTCRserver.sh
C. /products/tnm/bin/itnm_currentStatus
D. /products/tnm/bin/itnm_polldata_pruning
Answer: C

5. Click the Exhibit button.

A Network Administrator has configured the Scope.
Which two IP addresses will be deemed in-scope during a discovery of the network? (Choose two.)
A. 20.20.5.1
B. 20.20.5.63
C. 10.10.0.68
D. 172.168.0.5
E. 192.168.25.15
Answer: BD

6. When defining a new chassis with interfaces and connecting this to an existing entity using the
PresetLayer functionality, which three items need to be provided? (Choose three.)
A. neighbor information
B. containment information
C. the ClassName for the new entity
D. define the agents to run against the device
E. the SNMP/telnet credentials for the new entity
F. entity definitions for the chassis and interfaces
Answer: ABF

7. Which field is required to be set in an event so that the Event Gateway passes it through to IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition for further processing on a default installation?
A. Node
B. Severity
C. AlertKey
D. LocalNodeAlias
Answer: D

8.Which three items affect the number of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition domains? (Choose three.)
A. discovery scheduling
B. installation username
C. administrative boundaries
D. IP address space structure
E. seeding method for the discovery
F. estimated number of network entities
Answer: CDF

9. Which three items add to the normal expected deployment time? (Choose three.)
A. seeding from a file and ping sweeping
B. multiple global SNMP community strings
C. non-contiguous or unmanageable networks
D. devices outside of the standard device support list
E. collector-based discovery from external data source
F. Federal Information Processing Standard compliance
Answer: CDE

10. When planning for an IBM Tivoli Network Manger IP Edition deployment, which network consideration requires the segmentation of the network into more than one domain?
A. overlapping 1-1 NAT address spaces
B. Multiprotocol Label Switching VPN network operation
C. overlapping non Network Address Translation (NAT) address spaces
D. Regional Network Operations Centers performing follow the Sun support in Houston, Paris, and Tokyo
Answer: C

11. When planning for an IBM Tivoli Network Manger IP Edition deployment, which three factors require a custom installation rather than a default? (Choose three.)
A. there is a Failover requirement
B. the requirement to install as a non-root user
C. firewall ACLs in operation within the managed network
D. system restrictions preventing the launching of X-windows
E. the Netcool Common Information Model database type is Oracle
F. Federal Information Processing Standard compliance is required
Answer: AEF

12. What is the minimum memory requirement for a server when planning a single server IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition deployment on a small network where all the required components are on the same server?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 4 GB
D. 8 GB
Answer: C

13.When planning distributed IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition( Tivoli Network Manager) deployment on a small network, what is the minimum memory requirement for the server where Tivoli Network Manager core components are installed?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 4 GB
D. 8 GB
Answer: B

14. Which three databases are supported by IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition? (Choose three.)
A. DB2 7.2
B. DB2 9.1
C. Oracle 10g
D. Oracle 11g
E. MSSQL 2005
F. Postgres SQL
Answer: BCD

15. A customer has a network with 3,000 devices, and each device has around 100 interfaces spread across the world. The expected growth of the network is 10% every year, that is 300 devices with 100 interfaces.
What is the best type of installation of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition (Tivoli Network Manager) based on current scenario?
A. one Tivoli Network Manager server with multiple pollers
B. two Tivoli Network Manager servers with multiple pollers
C. one Tivoli Network Manager server without multiple pollers
D. two Tivoli Network Manager servers without multiple pollers
Answer: A

16.Which two generic types of data sources can be used to provide input to the discovery system using the Collector Framework? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. CSV
C. Java
D. SNMP
E. Database
Answer: AB

17. Which two tasks need to be performed to prepare the Collector Framework for discovery? (Choose two.)
A. start the collector
B. configure the collector
C. enable the Collector Stitchers
D. initialize the database connections for seeding
E. ensure that the ping discovery process is running
Answer: AB

18. Given a customer network with five static Network Address Translation private address space areas of which two overlap, what is the minimum number of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition installations required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: A

19. In a customer network with the NOC network, three private address spaces behind static Network Address Translation gateways, and four overlapping VPN address spaces, how many installations are required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: C

20. Which browser version is supported when a client operating system is AIX 6.1 and using Web
applications of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition?
A. Mozilla Firefox 1.5
B. Mozilla Firefox 2.0
C. Mozilla Firefox 3.0
D. Netscape Navigator 8
Answer: A

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000-027 - IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 Implementation
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000-530 - IBM Internet Security Systems Technical Test
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2009-07-11T10:19:00.000-07:00

IBM 000-331 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-331 Sample Questions:

1. Ethernet adapters on Power Systems servers support which of the following standard network protocols?
A. iSCSI
B. ESCON
C. TCP/IP
D. InfiniBand
Answer: C

2. Which of the following statements best describes POWER5 MCMs?
A. MCMs were used on the older POWER4 servers. POWER5 uses QCMs in place of the older MCM chips.
B. MCMs are POWER5+ dual core chips, shared L3 and L2 cache chips with two processor cores per processor card.
C. MCMs are available on the p5-575, p5-590, and p5-595 systems. They are quad core modules with 2 L3 cache and 4 processor cores.
D. MCMs are available on the p5-590 and p5-595 systems. They are 4 dual core POWER5 chips + 4 L3 cache chips for a total of 8 processor cores.
Answer: D

3. Which of the following characteristics of a POWER6 server has flexibility advantages over an Intel Quad Core based server?
A. POWER6 is fault tolerant.
B. POWER6 processors use HyperSocket technology.
C. POWER6 cores have a built in service processor.
D. POWER6 servers offer up to 10 partitions per core.
Answer: D

4. A company would like to consolidate many small applications with varying resource demands onto a midrange server with AIX6 to reduce system administration workload. What Power Systems technologies accomplish this objective?
A. SMT
B. Service Processor
C. Micro-partitioning
D. Partition Load Manager
Answer: C

5. A Bio Tech company is comparing HP and IBM servers for a HPC implementation. Which industry benchmark should be used to compare the system performance?
A. TPC-C
B. STREAM
C. SPECjbb
D. SPECfp2006
Answer: D

6. A customer has a need for high end graphics. Which of the following systems meets this need?
A. JS12
B. p575
C. p550
D. IntelliStation
Answer: D

7. A customer has two Sun v480 servers and plans to replace them with a Power Systems server. Which of the following can the customer use as an estimate of the relative performance between the existing servers and replacement server?
A. MIPS
B. RPE2
C. rPerf
D. ROLTP
Answer: B

8. An existing AIX 5.1 LPAR customer wants to move resources between logical partitions with minimal business disruption. Which of the following describes how this is done?
A. Implement DLPAR on AIX 5.1
B. Implement WPAR on AIX 5.3 or later
C. Implement DLPAR on AIX 5.3 or later
D. Implement Micropartitioning on AIX 5.1
Answer: C

9. A customer has three POWER4 servers and would like to replace them with a newer Power Systems server. What performance measurement should the customer use for comparison?
A. RPE2
B. ROLTP
C. rPerf
D. TPC-C
Answer: C

10. A customer currently has an 8-core p650 server with 64 GB memory that is nearing CPU capacity. Transaction processing requirements will nearly double in the next three years. There is a limited budget, but they need a new server now. Which of the following is the lowest-cost POWER6 option that would satisfy the requirements?
A. 520 2-core
B. 550 4-core
C. 570 8-core
D. JS22 Blade 4-core
Answer: B

000-330 Power Systems Technical Support for AIX and Linux

2009-07-11T10:17:00.000-07:00

IBM 000-330 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-330 Sample Questions:

1.The customer has a 7014B42, a 7014T00, and a 7014T42, each with available space. Which rack/racks support(s) the installation of the BladeCenter H?
A.7014B42
B.7014T00
C.7014T42
D.7014B42, and 7014T42
Answer: A

2.Which of the following supports a Linuxbased HA solution?
A.SE Linux
B.GPFS for Linux
C.Cluster Systems Manager (CSM)
D.PowerHA Cluster Manager for AIX and Linux
Answer: D

3.How can a company that is concerned about energy costs in the datacenter use Power servers to better manage energy usage?
A.Set energy management parameters with AEM
B.Set energy management parameters with IVM
C.Set energy management parameters within AIX
D.Set energy management parameters with the HMC
Answer: A

4.A customer is consolidating LAMP on Power. They would like to also consolidate Linux x86 OLTP applications. Which of the following should be discussed?
A.Requires PowerVM Lx86
B.Requires AIX 5.3 or later.
C.Native port is recommended
D.Enabled with the AIX Linux Toolkit
Answer: C

5.A large customer has many POWER4 servers that have been sized for their peak workload but are under utilized most of the time. They are at the end of their lease and want to purchase POWER6 servers. Which PowerVM technology will maximize their server utilization?
A.Workload Partitions
B.Partition Load Manager
C.Shared Processor Pools
D.Live Partition Mobility
Answer: C

6.Which of the following is a competitive advantage of IBM PowerVM compared to HP Integrity Virtual Machines (IVM)?
A.PowerVM provides the capability to support shared CPU, memory and I/O resources.
B.PowerVM Editions are supported on Power systems from low to highend servers and blade servers.
C.AIX and Linux interface directly with the hardware and the hardware ensures isolation is maintained.
D.Processing resources can be dynamically allocated and shared between logical partitions with PowerVM.
Answer: C

7.Which of the following does IBM Fix Central provide to customers?
A.Customer hotline for immediate dispatch of service personnel for critical issues.
B.Designated local service center for each customer location with a maintenance contract.
C.Subscription based onsite service agreement for regularly scheduled system maintenance.
D.Web site access to PTFs and updates for system software, hardware, and operating systems.
Answer: D

8.A mid market customer wants to compare Power Systems performance to HP PARISC performance from a complete systems perspective. Which performance metric should be used?
A.RPE2
B.SWAP
C.rPerf
D.SPECint 2006
Answer: A

9.How many network cards can be added to the JS12 and JS22 Blades?
A.JS12 = 1, JS22 = 1
B.JS12 = 2, JS22 = 2
C.JS12 = 1, JS22 = 2
D.JS12 = 2, JS22 = 1
Answer: B

10.Which of the following options for PowerHA Cluster Manager can help simplify implementation and configuration in a DB2 and WebSphere environment?
A.Smart Assist
B.Insight Utility
C.Virtual Image Manager
D.Cluster Systems Management
Answer: A

11.A customer has an 8core POWER6 570 with 4 active processors. They have dedicated partitions. They have occasional need for additional CPU capacity. They do not want permanent activations and want to have monthly post billing for usage. What type of CoD best meets their requirements?
A.Trial CoD allows short term processor and memory activations.
B.Utility CoD autonomically provides additional processor performance on a temporary basis.
C.On/Off CoD enables processors to be temporarily activated in fullday increments as needed.
D.Capacity Upgrade on Demand (CUoD) allows you to purchase additional processor capacity and dynamically activate it when needed.
Answer: C

12.Which of the following is the appropriate disk configuration for an application that requires faster writes over availability?
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 5
D.RAID 6
Answer: A

13.Which IBM technical resource provides guideance, installation and tmplementation examples?
A.IBM InfoCenter
B.IBM Sales Manual
C.IBM Installation Guides
D.IBM Technical Sales Library
Answer: A

14.Which of the following features of Active Energy Manager help customers save energy costs?
A.Power capping
B.Fan speed management
C.Active power leveling
D.Power regulator management
Answer: A

15.Which of the following correctly describes Utility Capacity on Demand?
A.Additional processors can be assigned to any partition and are billed to the customer as units of 1 day.
B.Additional processors can be assigned to any partition and are billed to the customer as units of 1 minute.
C.Additional processors are assigned to the shared processor pool and are billed to the customer as units of 1 day.
D.Additional processors are assigned to the shared processor pool and are billed to the customer as units of 1 minute.
Answer: D

IBM Certifications

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000-974 IBM Free Questions

2009-07-11T09:57:00.000-07:00

Here is the link for free IBM 000-974 exam questions:
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Just copied as following:

IBM 000-974 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-974 Sample Questions:

1. A customer has a small application library which requires encryption. Management requires the solution to have minimal impact. Which of the following addresses the customer's requirements?
A. V6R1 Encrypted ASP feature
B. V6R1 Backup Encryption Feature with BRMS Advanced Feature.
C. LTO-4 tape drives using Application Mode Encryption and BRMS.
D. LTO-4 tape drives using Library Mode Encryption using EKM on IBM i.
Answer: B

2. What is the maximum number of LUNs supported by the 4GB dual port fibre adapters FC #5749 and FC #5774?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
Answer: C

3. Which of the following correctly describes IBM's recomendation for the highest level of disk protection available for IBM i on a JS12 blade in a BladeCenter S (BCS)?
A. BCS managed RAID-3
B. VIOS managed disk mirroring
C. IBM i managed disk mirroring
D. BCS managed mirroring (RAID-10)
Answer: C

4. Which of the following is the most practical method of doing a partial save of an i5/OS partition on a POWER Blade?
A. i5/OS save to virtual optical IMGCLG, FTP images to VIOS or another i5/OS
B. Replicate VIOS LUNs assigned to i5/OS; bring up separate i5/OS partition from copy
C. FlashCopy (full copy) VIOS LUNs assigned to i5/OS; bring up separate i5/OS partition from copy
D. i5/OS save to virtual optical in VIOS; FlashCopy VIOS virtual media LUNs and attach to 2nd VIOS
Answer: A

5. Which of the following SAN storage models are supported by VIOS in an i5/OS environment?
A. DS4700, DS4800, DS8100, and DS8300
B. DS3400, DS4100, DS4500, and DS8100
C. DS4700, DS4800, DS6800, and DS8100
D. DS3400, DS4500, DS6800, and DS8300
Answer: A

6. A customer with a Power 520 M25 system and single processor would like to activate a second processor for another IBM i LPAR which will run Domino only. Which of the following will allow them to purchase IBM i at a reduced price?
A. i5/OS External Access
B. i5/OS Application Server
C. i5/OS Domino Application Server
D. i5/OS Unlimited Collaboration Users
Answer: D

7. A customer is purchasing a new POWER6 520 M25 with four IBM i partitions. The customer wants to have one Ethernet port in each partition. What is the least expensive way to satisfy this request?
A. Install one FC #2849 Ethernet card in each partition
B. Install one FC #5706 dual port Ethernet card in each partition.
C. Install one FC #5624 four port IVE and allocate one port to each partition.
D. Install two FC #5623 two port IVEs and allocate one port to each partition.
Answer: C

8. Which of the following provides CPU sizing when adding Domino to an existing IBM i partition?
A. iDoctor
B. Service Agent
C. Patrol Predict
D. Workload Estimator
Answer: D

9. A customer is installing 3 iSCSI-attached System x servers. What is the minimum number of IP addresses necessary to deploy the iSCSI LAN segment, before considering user connectivity?
A. 11 (3 for RSA-II connections, 4 for HBA connections and 4 for point to point connections)
B. 12 (4 for RSA-II connections, 4 for HBA connections and 4 for point to point connections)
C. 16 (4 for RSA-II connections, 6 for HBA connections and 6 for point to point connections)
D. 18 (4 for RSA-II connections, 8 for HBA connections and 6 for point to point connections)
Answer: D

10. A customer has a 525 with an FC #0595 PCI-X Expansion tower with two partitions: Test and Development. The Test partition is contained in the FC #0595 and the development partition is completely contained in the 525
CEC. They recently installed a 570 and would like to move the Test partition from the 525 to the 570.
Which of the following is the most efficient way to move the Test partition and associated hardware to the 570?
A. Configure the partition on the HMC for the 570 and attach the FC #0595.
B. Attach the FC #0595 to the 570 and configure the partition with the HMC.
C. Attach the FC #0595, configure the partition on the HMC for the 570, slip install SLIC on the new partition.
D. Configure the partition on the HMC for the 570, attach the FC #0595, and slip install SLIC on the new partition.
Answer: B