IBM 000-419 dumps, 000-419 exam, 000-419 test questions, 000-419 study guide, 000-419 practice test, 000-419 pdf, 000-419 vce testking download

Exam Code: 000-419
Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere Quality Stage v8 Examination
Last Update: Aug, 2009

100% pass guaranteed, no pass no pay

IBM 000-419 Exam - Cheat-Test.com Free 000-419 Sample Questions: 1. When running Word Investigation, producing a pattern report will help you do what? A. Refine a standardization rule set. B. Decide which fields to use for blocking fields. C. Discover inconsistencies in data type representation. D. Identify which patterns should survive. Answer: A 2. A client states that phone data is in the North American format: 999-999-9999. Which field mask would determine if the client is correct? A. C B. T C. X D. N Answer: B 3. What is a result when you increase the match cut-off setting? A. It minimizes the false positives. B. It minimizes the false negatives. C. It adds agreement weight. D. It subtracts agreement weight. Answer: A 4. Which technique can be used to reduce the processing time of the Match Frequency stage? A. Create a frequency file for all the fields in the input file. B. Create a frequency file for only the fields used for blocking and matching. C. Create a frequency file for only the fields used for matching. D. Create a frequency file for only the fields used for blocking. Answer: C 5. What are the two Match Specification probabilities that can be configured? (Choose two.) A. m probability B. u probability C. r probability D. pi probability Answer: A, B 6. Which three components must be specified to configure a match specification? (Choose three.) A. frequency file B. match test database C. Standardize stage D. sample data set E. Match stage Answer: A, B, D 7. Which two columns are outputs of the Match Frequency stage? (Choose two.) A. qsFreqAddressLine1 B. qsFreqFirstName C. qsFreqCount D. qsFreqColumnID Answer: C, D 8. Which two processing methods should use candidate selection? (Choose two.) A. real-time B. initial load C. one-time load D. delta load Answer: A, D 9. Which three types of rule set overrides are valid? (Choose three.) A. column type overrides B. classification overrides C. output pattern overrides D. unhandled pattern overrides E. input text overrides Answer: B, D, E 10. Which file contains the definition of the output structure of the standardize stage? A. Classification table B. Pattern-action C. Dictionary file D. Lookup tables Answer: C

more free IBM 000-419 exam questions

We are all well aware that a major problem in the IT industry is that there is a lack of quality study materials. Our 000-419 Preparation Exam Material provides you everything you will need to take a certification examination. Details are researched and produced by Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, logical and verified explanations for the answers. You may get questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key.

IBM 000-530 exam, 000-530 study guide, 000-530 dumps, 000-530 torrent, 000-530 testking download, 000-530 pdf ebook

Like actual certification exams our 000-530 Exam is in multiple-choice questions (MCQs). After purchasing our products you are just a step away from testing for certification. Still not convinced? Try our free samples or choose to buy your 000-530 Practice Exam now!

IBM 000-530 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-530 Sample Questions:

1. Which of the following is true regarding how SiteProtector can be deployed?
A. It can only be deployed as a stand-alone server or as an appliance.
B. It can be deployed in a stand-alone or distributed architecture.
C. It must be deployed by IBM ISS Professional Services.
D. It must be deployed with all Network IPS appliances.
Answer: B

2. Which component commits IDS events to the SiteProtector Database?
A. IDS Appliance
B. Agent Manager
C. Event Collector
D. Secure Sync
Answer: C

3. Which policy contains signature exceptions for specific VLANs?
A. Firewall
B. User Defined Events
C. Protection Domains
D. Connection Events
Answer: C

4. At the beginning of 2009, approximately how many URL's were contained in the IBM ISS Web Filter and Antispam Database?
A. 3 Billion
B. 9 Billion
C. 23 Million
D. 60 Million
Answer: B

5. Which of the following protocols is protected by the Proventia MFS appliance antivirus engine?
A. IMAP
B. SMTP
C. POP2
D. SFTP
Answer: B

6. The Proventia GX4004 can be used inline prevention mode with how many segments?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Six
D. Eight
Answer: A

7. Which of the following products competes with IBM Enterprise Vulnerability Assessment?
A. Snort
B. Cisco NAC
C. Qualys
D. TippingPoint
Answer: C

8. Proventia Desktop uses which antivirus engine?
A. Sophos
B. Norton
C. ClamAV
D. BitDefender
Answer: D

9. A Stealth Port Scan consists of which of the following?
A. Single packet with the PUSH flag set
B. Full TCP handshake
C. Single SYN packet
D. Single packet with the URG flag set
Answer: C

10. What function does the Agent Manager provide in SiteProtector?
A. Provides central alert storage and analysis
B. Acts as a communication channel for the Proventia appliances
C. Communicates vulnerability assessments to Proventia appliances
D. Compares, analyzes, and reports all Proventia events
Answer: B

click here for viewing more IBM 000-530 exam questions

000-550 dumps, 000-550 exam questions, 000-550 exam, 000-550 braindumps, 000-550 study guide, 000-550 pdf torrent, 000-550 vce testking rapidshare

IBM 000-550 Exam - Cheat-Test.com Free 000-550 Sample Questions: 1. To administer a HotStandby database you need which privilege? A. Sys_Sync_Admin_Role B. Sys_Console_Role C. Sys_Hotstandby_Role D. Sys_Replication_Role Answer: B 2. To execute the HotStandby administrative commands, which type of access privilege would be needed? A. SYS_ADMIN_SYNC_ROLE B. SYNC_ADMIN_ROLE C. ADMIN_CONSOLE_ROLE D. SYS_CONSOLE_ROLE Answer: D 3. How many different installations of solidDB binaries can exist on the same host? A. one B. as many as can fit C. one per release of solidDB D. one per version of solidDB Answer: B 4. What are two possible conflict resolution methods between solidDB and a back-end database? (Choose two.) A. Source wins B. Reference C. Trigger D. UserExit E. Alert user Answer: A, D 5. It is possible when using solsql to run scripts either interactively or nested within another script. Which special character is used to identify that you want to execute a script file? A. * B. @ C. # D. ! Answer: B 6. Which ADMIN command is used to shut down the solidDB database? A. shutdown B. disconnect C. terminate D. close Answer: A 7. To set the log persistence level server-wide, which parameter would be set in the solid.ini file? A. LogLevel B. Isolation C. DurabilityLevel D. Adaptive Answer: C 8. solidDB can store Unicode characters. Which two data types should you use to store Unicode? (Choose two.) A. CLOB B. CHAR C. WCHAR D. VARCHAR E. WVARCHAR Answer: C, E 9. A conflict detection and resolution method within CDC is only available when you map your tables using ______. A. Standard B. One-to-One C. Consolidation D. Bidirectional replication Answer: A 10. You want to map multiple source tables to multiple target tables in the same subscription. These tables share the same table structure and similar table names. Which mapping method should you use? A. Standard B. Mirror C. LiveAudit D. One-to-One Answer: D More 000-550 Exam Questions Cheat-test 000-550 Certification Exam There are many online resources for preparing for the 000-550 exam. Read below to discover why Cheat-test.com is your premier source for practice tests, and true testing environment.

cheat-test 000-j03 free study guide, ibm 000-j03 training boot camp

000-J03 IBM Sys I Entry Level for BPs - Tech.Mastery Test V1

IBM 000-J03 Exam - Cheat-Test.com Free 000-J03 Sample Questions: Q: 1 Users running iSeries Access on their personal computers cannot obtain a sign-on screen. Twinax terminals are able to obtain a connection. What could be cause of the personal computer connection problem? A. TCP/IP is not active B. Subsystem QBATCH is not active C. Subsystem QINTER is not active D. The system is in a restricted state Answer: A Q: 2 Where is the assistance level for individuals specified? A. In the user profile B. In the job description C. In the system value QASTLVL D. In the workstation device description Answer: A Q: 3 Which of the following components included with iSeries Navigator is used to manage tasks across one or more systems simultaneously? A. Management Central B. Simple Cluster Management C. Symmetric Multiprocessing D. System Manager for iSeries Answer: A Q: 4 Which of the following options are available from the CL command WRKSPLF (work with spool files) screen? A. Send, Save, Delete B. Reroute, Send, Change C. Attributes, Save, Hold D. Change, Release, Attributes Answer: D Q: 5 A customer ran the WRKQRY command and received a message that the Query for i5/OS licensed program is not available. The licensed program 5722-QU1 had been installed. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem? A. Required components for the base option have not been installed B. The Query for i5/OS (5722-QU1) licensed program is set in restricted mode C. The license key for Query for i5/OS (5722-QU1) licensed program was not entered D. The Query for i5/OS (5722-QU1) licensed program has an installed status of *error Answer: C Q: 6 Which values does the CL command CHGSYSVAL SYSVAL (QTOTJOB) VALUE(750) set? A. The total number of jobs in QCTF B. The total number of jobs in the system message queue C. The total number of active jobs allowed on the system D. The total number of active jobs for which storage must be allocated Answer: D Q: 7 A customer is planning to manage a system using iSeries Navigator. Which of the following licensed programs is required before iSeries Navigator can be used? A. IBM Connect 2.0 LPP (5733-CO2) B. XML Toolkit for iSeries (5733-XT1) C. IBM iSeries Access for Windows (5722-XE1) D. IBM WebSphere Application Server (5722-WAS) Answer: C Q: 8 How can a system administrator obtain detailed information on a message logged in the QSYSOPR message queue? A. Use the DSPJOBLOG command B. Place the cursor on the message, press F1 C. Use the DSPMSGD command to obtain the information D. Use the DSPLOG command to find the entry, and press F1 on the message Answer: B Q: 9 If a system is placed in a restricted state, which subsystem would still be running? A. QCTL B. QCMN C. QINTER D. QBATCH Answer: A Q: 10 A customer has installed a System i520 Express Growth with RAID and requires more disk space. How many disk units can be added to provide the maximum disk space, WITHOUT requiring additional PCI-X I/O towers? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 Answer: B Q: 11 Which iSeries Navigator category would be used to configure Electronic Service Agent and ECS for access through the Internet? A. Basic Operations B. Management Central C. Configuration and Service D. Network Answer: D Q: 12 A customer is upgrading their i520 IBM Operating System from V5R3 to V5R4. What must be done on the system before the installation can be done? A. Increase the memory B. Add additional disk units C. Allocate an alternate IPL device D. Allocate space for the license internal code Answer: D Q: 13 Which save option should be used before loading and applying an IBM cumulative PTF? A. Select Option 21. Save Entire System from the GO SAVE menu B. Select Option 23. Save All User Data from the GO SAVE menu C. Select Option 22. Save System Data Only from the GO SAVE menu D. Select Option 41. All IBM libraries other than system library from the GO SAVE menu Answer: A Q: 14 Which of the following licensed programs is included in the System i520 Express Entry configuration? A. Query for i5/OS (5722-QU1) B. iSeries Access for Windows (5722-XE1) C. WebSphere Development Studio (5722-WDS) D. WebSphere Application Server Express (5722-IWE/WE1) Answer: D Q: 15 A system administrator wants to set up a daily backup schedule to save all user libraries and automatically print detailed reports after the backup has completed. Which of the following can be used to accomplish this? A. Select iSeries Navigator - Backup Policies, and create a daily backup schedule. B. Select option 21 and Save entire system on menu GO SAVE and set the start time to the desired time. C. Create an entry in the iSeries Job Scheduler to run a SAVLIB *NONSYS command for each day of the week you wish the backup to run. D. Create an entry in the iSeries Job Scheduler to run the SAVLIB *ALLUSR command for each day of the week you wish the backup to run. Answer: A Q: 16 The security system value has been changed from security level 20 to security level 40. Which of the following must be executed to prevent a user from changing and deleting objects on the system? A. Remove *ALLOBJ from the user profile. B. Remove *SPLCTL and *JOBCTL from the user profile. C. Change the object authority to *EXCLUDE for the user profile. D. Change the limit capabilities option to *YES for the user profile Answer: A Q: 17 A customer with an installed system i520 Express (1200/60) wants to replace the base twinax console with a LAN console and install a 4811 IXS. In addition to replacing the FC #5540 Twinax console indicator with an FC #5553 Embedded Ethernet Console indicator, which of the following is the LEAST expensive solution? A. Order 4811 IXS and PCI-X Expansion Tower 5095 B. Order 4811 IXS and PCI-X Expansion Tower 5094 C. Order 4811 IXS and PCI-X Expansion Tower 5790 D. Order 4811 IXS and remove the 9746 Twinax card Answer: D Q: 18 Which of the following needs to be completed after restoring user profiles? A. RSTAUT B. RSTCFG C. RSTOBJ D. RSTDLO Answer: A Q: 19 A customer wants to run a Web-based application on an i520 Express that requires 3200 CPW and 20 interactive CPW. Of the seven i520 Express configurations, which is the minimum configuration that satisfies this requirement? A. Turbo B. Growth C. Growth + RAID D. Entry Plus + RAID Answer: A Q: 20 A customer added new disk drives to their i520 Express that has RAID protection. What needs to be done after the new disk drives are configured? A. Add the units to the ASP and start mirrored protection B. Enable compression on all disks and add them to the ASP C. Start device parity and then add the disk drives to the ASP D. Add the disk drives to the ASP and then start device parity Answer: C Q: 21 Which are the four operating modes on the System i control panel? A. Manual, Normal, Secure, Auto B. Normal, Secure, Auto, Service C. Auto, Normal, Restricted, Service D. Secure, Manual, Normal, Restricted Answer: A Q: 22 A PTF was ordered and applied, and the status is showing ACN (Action needed). Where is the information found that explains what is required to fully apply this PTF? A. Joblog B. History log C. Cumulative PTF package D. Cover letter for the PTF Answer: D Q: 23 A customer with an installed System i520 Express needs to install one additional Ethernet adapter. They need to attach to 1Gbps LANs with enough flexibility to attach to lower speed LANs and only slot C04 is available. Which of the following satisfies the requirement? A. 5701 - (single port) Ethernet adapter with UTP connections B. 5700 - (single port) Ethernet adapter with Optical connections C. 5706 - Smart IOA (dual port) Ethernet adapter with UTP connections D. 5707 - Smart IOA (dual port) Ethernet adapter with Optical connections Answer: C Q: 24 Which of the following environments does the Virtual Partition Manager (VPM) support? A. Two i5/OS partitions and two AIX Partitions B. One i5/OS partition and four Linux Partitions C. Two i5/OS partitions and two Linux Partitions D. One i5/OS partition, Three Linux partitions and one AIX Partition Answer: B Q: 25 The System i architecture is represented by a hierarchy with four building blocks. Which of the following represents the order of the hierarchy, from the bottom to the top? A. Application support, Licensed Internal Code (LIC), Operating System, Programming support B. Licensed Internal Code (LIC), Operating System, Programming support, Application support C. Operating System, Licensed Internal Code (LIC), Programming support, Application support D. Licensed Internal Code (LIC), Programming support, Operating System, Application support Answer: B

ibm 000-J02 test questions, 000-J02 cheat-test & testking dumps

Q: 1 Which of the following is the least expensive upgrade option for a customer with System i5 520 Express Entry Plus who wishes to add significant Domino and Linux workloads?
A. Order Accelerator
B. Order processor upgrade to 520 Express Turbo
C. Order processor upgrade to 520 Express Growth
D. Order two additional DASD and 2GB of main memory
Answer: A

Q: 2 Which of the following is an advantage of the System i microprocessor design hierarchy?
A. It protects the applications from hardware technology changes.
B. It is specifically designed for compute-intensive applications.
C. It shares resources with multiple, heterogeneous, concurrent systems.
D. It offloads I/O and communication-intensive tasks from the central processor.
Answer: D

Q: 3 Which of the following allows applications or services running in a Linux partition to communicate to an i5/OS partition?
A. iSCSI
B. ODBC Connection
C. High Speed Link
D. Virtual Ethernet
Answer: D

Q: 4 Which feature of i5/OS provides workload management functions to optimize performance and maintain integrity?
A. i5/OS subsystems
B. Single Level Storage
C. IBM Virtualization Engine
D. Independent Auxiliary Storage Pool (iASP)
Answer: A

Q: 5 A System i5 prospect is starting to look for an ERP solution. What should be the first steps in the selling process?
A. Discuss their financial commitment to the project and their willingness to grow the project and budget if additional features are cost-justifiable.
B. Prepare a preliminary technical solution proposal document with numbers and timeframes for the customer's review.
C. Calculate the expected ROI through discussion with the customer to demonstrate value and benefits of proceeding.
D. Determine their budget and application requirements, and discuss references of similar solutions that are already operational.
Answer: D

Q: 6 A System i sales rep has proposed a System i5 Express solution to a customer. A broker recently presented the alternative of an older iSeries with similar cpw. How should the sales rep initially counter the used/second hand equipment proposal?
A. Present consultant reports and/or white papers showing System i Total Cost of Ownership benefits.
B. Explain that Express models have low-cost upgrade options and that upgrades from the older models have been withdrawn.
C. Discuss "hidden costs" of used equipment such as hardware maintenance, software tiers, shipping, SWMA, after-license cost, etc.
D. Contact the assigned IBM representative to provide a detailed pricing comparison and, if needed, pursue a special bid.
Answer: C

Q: 7 Which of the following provides the highest speed connectivity for disk and Virtual Ethernet when attaching an external xSeries?
A. PCI 2-Line WAN Adapter
B. PCI-X 1 Gb Ethernet LAN Adapter
C. PCI-X iSCSI Adapter
D. PCI-X Fibre Adapter
Answer: C

Q: 8 Which of the following is a reason to propose an external cable-attached tape drive instead of an internal tape drive?
A. Needed adapters and the drives themselves are typically less expensive for external tape solutions.
B. External tape drives allow more capacity per cartridge and/or tape library capabilities.
C. Customer needs to back up PCs managed by the System i (IXS/IXA/iSCSI), and this can only be done with switchable external drives.
D. Customer needs to save information on Quarter Inch Cartridge (QIC) media so they can exchange tapes with an older iSeries using that media.
Answer: B

Q: 9 Which of the following is an important software function that is new for V5R4?
A. Switchable IASPs
B. Virtual tape support
C. Cross-site mirroring
D. RAID-5 auxiliary cache
Answer: B

Q: 10 Which of the following is a benefit of consolidating multiple Linux servers on a System i server instead of on Intel?
A. Linux is included at no cost in System i Express Edition packages.
B. i5/OS applications simplify Linux configuration.
C. There are more Linux distribution options on System i.
D. Linux on System i optimizes utilization of system resources.
Answer: D

Q: 11 An Integrated xSeries Server or Adapter (IXS/IXA) can be used to do which of the following?
A. Connect a Blade Server to a System i.
B. Configure a Hardware Management Console (HMC).
C. Load and run Windows Server 2003 natively on a POWER processor.
D. Integrate Windows and i5/OS applications using a secure virtual network.
Answer: D

Q: 12 The Hardware Management Console (HMC) is used to do which of the following?
A. Activate the Accelerator.
B. Create and change partitions.
C. Configure a System i Ethernet adapter.
D. Install and manage an integrated System x adapter.
Answer: B

Q: 13 A prospect for System i5 Express is concerned about the strategic direction of the IBM System i product line. IBM's Systems Agenda speaks directly to this point. Which of the following is a characteristic of the IBM Systems Agenda?
A. IBM commits to virus-resistant systems.
B. IBM commits to consistent product announcement schedules.
C. IBM commits to flexible, open systems.
D. IBM commits to systems that provide the lowest cost of ownership.
Answer: C

Q: 14 Which of the following System i characteristics most contributes to rapid speed of deployment?
A. Pre-tested single entity operating system
B. Preloaded ISV applications
C. Adherence to industry standards
D. Simultaneous multithreading
Answer: A

Q: 15 Which of the following features of i5/OS has made the System i5 highly resistant to viruses?
A. Power Hypervisor
B. Single Level Store
C. Object-based architecture
D. Systems Licensed Internal Code (SLIC)
Answer: C

Q: 16 Which of the following describes software maintenance coverage for the IBM System i5 520 Express Edition announced in 2006?
A. Three years of software maintenance must be added to the System i5 520 Express.
B. One year of software maintenance is included in the price of the System i5 520 Express.
C. One or three years of software maintenance is optional for the System i5 520 Express.
D. Three years of software maintenance are included in the price of the System i5 520 Express.
Answer: B

Q: 17 A prospect for a System i5 Express Edition has a need for two i5/OS partitions. Which of the following best describes how the i5/OS licensing will be handled?
A. An i5/OS license is needed for each i5/OS partition.
B. i5/OS licensing must be purchased at an extra cost for each processor.
C. An additional i5/OS license is only needed if a third partition is needed.
D. The needed i5/OS licensing is included in the Express edition.
Answer: D

Q: 18 Which of the following best summarizes the characteristics of the IBM System i5 520 Express configurations?
A. Flexible hardware and software configurations with full 5250 capability
B. Flexible hardware and software configurations with limited 5250 capability
C. Predefined hardware and software configurations with full 5250 capability
D. Predefined hardware and software configurations with limited 5250 capability
Answer: D

Q: 19 Which of the following capabilities of System i maximizes usage of resources in a single system and is not available in a multiple, standalone Intel server environment?
A. Reliability, Availability, Scalability (RAS)
B. Micro-partitioning
C. Virtual tape
D. Business Resilience
Answer: B

Q: 20 The Accelerator for System i5 increases which of the following?
A. Interactive capabilities and memory
B. Processing power and memory
C. Processing power and the number of partitions
D. Number of partitions and interactive capability
Answer: C

IBM 000-J02 Exam - Cheat-Test.com Free 000-J02 Sample Questions:

000-135 IBM training

000-135 Exam Preparation from CertifySky.com include:
Comprehensive questions with complete details
Questions accompanied by exhibits (depending on exam)
Verified Answers Researched by Industry Experts
Drag and Drop questions as experienced in the Actual Exams (depending on exam)
Questions updated on regular basis
These questions and answers are backed by our GUARANTEE
Like actual certification exams our product is in multiple-choice questions (MCQs)

IBM 000-135 Exam - CertifySky.com

Free 000-135 Sample Questions:

1. HATS Web applications can be deployed to WebSphere Application Server running on which operating systems?
A. Windows, AIX, IBM I, z/OS, or Linux on z
B. IBM I or z/OS only
C. Linux on System i or System z only
D. Windows or Linux only
Answer: A

2. Which aspect of a HATS project CANNOT be migrated automatically?
A. screen customizations (.evnt files)
B. host connection properties in the .hco files
C. Javascript files (.js files)
D. screen capture files (.hsc files)
Answer: C

3. Users interact with an instance of a HATS rich client application using a transformation view. What is NOT a part of the transformation view?
A. toolbar
B. application keypad
C. OIA
D. transformation area
Answer: B

4. Which macro action CANNOT be used in conjunction with an Integration Object?
A. Conditional
B. Perform
C. PlayMacro
D. Trace
Answer: B

5. What is an invalid way to use macros in a HATS application?
A. as an action, such as the play macro action or the play macro transaction action
B. to connect or disconnect a particular host connection
C. as input into the wizard that generates a Web service
D. as a macro button on a transformation
Answer: C

6. Text replacement can be defined at various artifact levels. What is NOT a valid level to define text replacement?
A. project level
B. rendering item level
C. screen customization level
D. transformation level
Answer: D

ibm 000-M35 free braindumps and training

IBM 000-M35 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-M35 Sample Questions:

1. What is the smallest unit of physical I/O in an IDS server?
A. Chunk
B. Extent
C. Page
D. Dbspace
Answer: C

2. In which of the following scenarios is IDS the best fit?
A. Applications with variable and dynamic data records
B. Large data warehouses requiring cubing and analytics
C. Applications requiring dedicated hardware as part of the solution
D. High-transaction OLTP workloads
Answer: D

3. What size businesses is IDS targeted to?
A. Medium-sized businesses only
B. Large, medium, and small businesses
C. Small businesses only
D. Small businesses with a team of database administrators
Answer: B

4. Which of the following is a key benefit of IDS?
A. Functional extensions can be added to support new business problem domains
B. Existing solutions do not scale as the business grows
C. Uptime of at most 80% can be achieved using continuous availability features
D. Databases must be administered by a local database administrator
Answer: A

5. Which of the following is a key benefit that allows IDS to excel in the small-medium business marketplace?
A. It only supports a small number of users
B. Data can be exported to flat files
C. Only a single IDS instance can be online and active at a time
D. Autonomic features offer near hands-free administration
Answer: D

6. Which of the following administrative processes can IDS handle automatically?
A. Storage provisioning
B. Statistics collection
C. Database schema optimization
D. Data re-distribution
Answer: B

7. The MACH11 high availability technology in IDS offers which of the following benefits?
A. The ability to replicate subsets of a database
B. The ability to create multiple secondary copies of the primary server
C. The ability to replicate data between different versions and editions of IDS
D. The ability to achieve redundancy using expensive hardware and third party software
Answer: B

8. Which statement about the OpenAdmin Tool (OAT) is true?
A. It is only available for IDS Express edition
B. It is a separate, add-on feature that is chargeable
C. It can manage hundreds of local or remote IDS instances
D. It can manage, monitor, and administer local databases only
Answer: C

9. Which of the following statements about MACH11 high availability technology is true?
A. It requires high speed interconnect technology between nodes
B. It works only in a shared disk environment
C. It requires additional technology for disaster recovery
D. It provides multi-site, geographically remote availability
Answer: D

10. A small dentist office uses IDS as the backend database for their operational system. A small Intel-based system with a single processor and 2 GB of memory is used. It also runs the Windows operating system. Which edition of IDS is the minimum required?
A. IDS Express Edition
B. IDS Workgroup Edition
C. IDS Enterprise Edition
D. IDS Developer Edition
Answer: A