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(000-100) Enterprise Technical Support for AIX and Linux

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Free 000-100 Sample Questions:

1. What command is used to create an application Workload Partition?
A. mkwpar
B. crwpar
C. wparexec
D. mkappwpar
Answer: C

2. A customer wants to use Live Partition Mobility for system maintenance. What is the minimum requirement?
A. PowerHA
B. Virtual I/O server 1.4
C. PowerVM Standard Edition
D. PowerVM Enterprise Edition
Answer: D

3. A customer has a requirement for a new LPAR to run SUSE Linux using a SCSI adapter that is not currently supported in Linux. Which of the following solutions should be recommended?
A. Assign the adapter to a VIO Server.
B. Use AIX drivers to install the adapter in the Linux LPAR.
C. Use Linux Affinity in AIX to move the application from SUSE to AIX.
D. NFS mount the disks from an AIX LPAR hosting the SCSI adapter, to the Linux LPAR.
Answer: A

4. A system administrator has received a sysplan file to configure a new server. Which of the following is the method to deploy the new server with minimal effort?
A. Copy file on HMC and deploy partitions.
B. Send file to IBM deployment portal for conversion.
C. Copy the file to the managed system and run the deploy application.
D. Execute file in System Planning tool and chose destination server to automatically deploy partitions.
Answer: A

5. Which tool is the most cost and time effective for specifying adapter placement on new orders?
A. HMC
B. System planning tool
C. Tivoli Provisioning Manager
D. System planning tool + Workload estimator
Answer: B

6. How does a Power 570 need to be installed for optimum cooling?
A. With empty space at the top for free airflow
B. With empty space at the bottom for free airflow
C. In a cold/warm row setup with the hot-row at the back
D. In a cold/warm row setup with the hot-row at the front
Answer: C

7. What is the minimum number of power cable(s) that must be connected to power up a 16-core POWER 570 without errors in the managed frame?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: D

8. A customer has a new POWER6 system with 2 partitions that require a large amount of TCP network traffic to pass between them for backup purposes. Which solution provides the greatest throughput?
A. Virtual Ethernet
B. Integrated Virtual Ethernet (IVE)
C. One 10Gb Ethernet adapter assigned to each partition
D. Separate Host Ethernet Adapters (HEA) assigned to each partition
Answer: B

9. A customer has ordered a Power 570 with only 4 dual port fibre cards. Which configuration would allow 4 LPARs on this server to have multiple paths, with no single point of failure, for each SAN connection?
A. Assign each LPAR 2 fibre ports, each from a different fibre adapter
B. Dual VIO servers with 2 cards per server and mapping via virtual SCSI adapters
C. One VIO server mapping disks using dual virtual SCSI adapters from the 4 adapters
D. Assign each LPAR a fibre card and ensure each port is mapped to a separate fibre switch
Answer: B

10. Why is the "dyntrk" attribute of fcs adapters in AIX important?
A. It enables automatic discovery of cabling changes.
B. It enables fibre channel data packet dynamic tracing.
C. It allows the fibre card in the server to be relocated dynamically.
D. When using an SVC it allows the target LUNs to be migrated to different fabric.
Answer: A

11. A company has four LPARs configured as shown:
8 x 4.2GHz CPUs
16GB Memory
4 LPARs
LPAR 1: Test 1 CPU, 2GB Memory, 1 Fibre Channel HBA, AIX
LPAR 2: Development 1 CPU, 2GB Memory, 1 Fibre Channel HBA, AIX LPAR 3: Prod 3 CPUs, 6GB Memory, 1 Fibre Channel HBA, AIX
LPAR 4: Web App 3 CPUs, 6GB Memory, 1 Fibre Channel HBA, SUSE Linux
Utilization over a 30 day period
LPAR 1: Average utilization was 15%, Peak utilization was 100% LPAR 2: Average utilization was 25%, Peak utilization was 100% LPAR 3: Average utilization was 50%, Peak utilization was 90% LPAR 4: Average utilization was 35%, Peak utilization was 100%
----------------------------------------------------------------
If there is a requirement for all 4 LPARs to be assigned to a shared pool, which of the following best describes the profile requirements?
A. LPARs 1 and 2, uncapped, SMT on, Weights between 25-30, min CPU 0.1, max CPU 1.0
LPARs 3 and 4, capped, SMT on, Weights between 100-130, min CPU 2.7, max CPU 3.0
B. LPARs 1 and 2, capped, SMT on, Weights between 25-30, min CPU 0.1, max CPU 1.0
LPARs 3 and 4, uncapped, SMT on, Weights between 100-130, min CPU 2.7, max CPU 3.0
C. LPARs 1 and 2, capped, SMT on, Weights between 100-130, min CPU 0.1, max CPU 1.0
LPARs 3 and 4, uncapped, SMT on, Weights between 25-30, min CPU 2.7, max CPU 3.0
D. LPARs 1 and 2, uncapped, SMT off, Weights between 25-30, min CPU 0.1, max CPU 1.0
LPARs 3 and 4, capped, SMT on, Weights between 100-130, min CPU 2.7, max CPU 3.0
Answer: B

12. A customer is planning to consolidate their existing servers currently running AIX 5.3 to a POWER6 570.
The customer has a test environment, a development environment and a production environment for two applications. Both the test and Development environments are very small and are only utilized when new releases are being developed and tested. They require less than 1 CPU each.
Both production applications require 2 CPUs for day-to-day operation and can require up to an additional 2 CPUs each during abrupt peak requirements. With performance in mind, what is the optimal design for the LPARs?
A. Use micro-partitioning for test and development environments, and DLPAR for the production environment.
B. Create workload partitions for all test, development, and production environments to keep production prioritized.
C. Use micro-partitioning for test and development environment, and shared processor pool for the production environment.
D. Create standard LPARs for all test, development, and production environment to keep all partitions separate and isolated.
Answer: C

13. A customer is implementing a dual Virtual IO server environment to service 4 LPARs. If each operating system image requires 18 GB of disk space, what is the minimum amount of SCSI resources necessary?
A. Two SCSI paths and two 73GB SCSI disks
B. Two SCSI paths and two 146GB SCSI disks
C. Four SCSI paths and four 73GB SCSI disks
D. Two dual port SCSI RAID adapters with two 73GB SCSI disks
Answer: B

14. A Power 570 is planned to run with a dual VIOS environment. The VIOS should be equipped for maximum resilience to provide LUN access to both VIO servers. What are the minimum requirements?
A. Two dual port adapters
B. Four dual port adapters
C. Two single port adapters
D. Four single port adapters
Answer: D

15. Customer wants to be able to access a GPFS filesystem from an NFS client, even if the GPFS node exporting the filesystem fails. What must be used to achieve this?
A. Use automount on the client.
B. Use NFS V3 or NFS V4 Replicas.
C. Use HANFS from both GPFS nodes.
D. Use NFS V4 Replicas from 2 GPFS nodes.
Answer: D

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Free 000-046 Sample Questions:

1. Which type of DOORS user can create projects?
A. Edit DXL
B. Standard
C. Project Manager
D. Database Manager
Answer: D

2. Which statement is true about Private, Public, and Custom views?
A. All users have modify access to a Public view.
B. The Standard view can have custom access rights.
C. A view can only be made Private if the For Module check box is selected.
D. Access rights for a Custom view are inherited from the currently displayed view.
Answer: D

3. Which two module attributes can be used to generate a report about changes to the module? (Choose two.)
A. Created By
B. Created On
C. Last Modified By
D. Last Modified On
Answer: CD

4. According to the Standish Group, what percent of IT project failures result from poor requirements gathering, analysis, and management?
A. 30 to 40 percent
B. 40 to 50 percent
C. 50 to 60 percent
D. 60 to 70 percent
Answer: D

5. Which challenge faced by IT projects is most directly addressed with Requirements Management tools?
A. cost
B. time
C. scope
D. compliance
Answer: C

6. What is Requirements Management used for at the board level?
A. to develop tools
B. for project management
C. to develop a corporate vision
D. for portfolio and program management
Answer: C

7. Which type of requirement on the V-model focuses on design and implementation?
A. system
B. operational
C. component
D. stakeholder
Answer: C

8. When tracking development traceability along the V-model, what satisfies stakeholder requirements?
A. vision
B. system tests
C. acceptance tests
D. system requirements
Answer: D

9. What is NOT a characteristic of good requirements?
A. clear
B. correct
C. complete
D. ambiguous
Answer: D

10. What are three characteristics of a good requirements set? (Choose three.)
A. modular
B. sufficient
C. consistent
D. exhaustive
Answer: ABC

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IBM 000-377 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-377 Sample Questions:

1. Which of the following is an option given in the First Steps application that runs automatically after installation?
A. Start the server.
B. Execute wsadmin.
C. Configure resources.
D. Run the Snoop servlet.
Answer: A

2. Which one of the following can be used to instantiate resource adapter classes for establishing and maintaining resource connections?
A. a data source
B. connection factories
C. connection pool settings
D. a JMS activation specification
Answer: B

3. global security is turned on for a federated cell using a file-based federated repository. The administrator created a new security domain called App1Domain using local operating system registry and mapping it to the application server. The administrator also created a new local operating system user ID App1Admin?
Which one of the following is true when the new security domain is enabled to secure Application1?
A. The administrator can access Application1.
B. The administrator can disable Application1 security.
C. App1Admin can disable Application1 security.
D. App1Admin can access the administrative console.
Answer: B

4. Aside from the administrative console and the addNode command, what other facilities does WebSphere Application Server provide for federating nodes into cells?
A. wsadmin
B. The administrative agent
C. The Profile Management Tool (PMT)
D. Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy Module
Answer: C

5. When backing up WebSphere Application Server configuration and runtime settings, which of the following commands would be relevant?
A. backupConfig -location location
B. restoreConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
C. manageprofiles -backupProfile -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
D. wsadmin -backupConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
Answer: C

6. What can the system administrator do to distribute incoming HTTP traffic across a farm of Web servers?
A. Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the cluster
B. Implement the Tivoli Access Manager as a load balancer
C. Implement the caching proxy server component of the Edge Components
D. Use the Load Balancer component of the Edge Components
Answer: D

7. What is the sequence of components which would typically be involved in the flow of a request from a Web browser to a servlet?
A. External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and EJB Container
B. Load Balancer, Embedded HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and Web Container
C. Edge Component, HTTP Server Plug-in, external HTTP Server, and Web Container
D. External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in, embedded HTTP Server and Web Container
Answer: D

8. How could an administrator manage multiple stand-alone application servers on different hosts in a network?
By using:
A. a job manager which administers multiple application server nodes through administrative agents.
B. a deployment manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their node agents.
C. a high availability manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their administrative agents.
D. an administrative agent which administers multiple application server nodes through their administrative service.
Answer: A

9. Which type of server is recommended to be placed in the demilitarized zone (DMZ)?
A. Generic servers
B. Application servers
C. Managed HTTP servers
D. Unmanaged HTTP servers
Answer: D

10. What is the advantage of deploying more than one messaging engine and linking them together in a topology that has multiple interconnected service integration buses (SIBus)?
A. Enable protocol transformation between buses.
B. Improve the availability of the persistent storage.
C. Spread messaging workload across multiple servers.
D. Preserve message ordering through the messaging engines.
Answer: C

11. Why does IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment utilize node groups to implement a distributed environment? To:
A. segment multiple security domains within a WebSphere cell.
B. define the logical grouping of application servers to scale horizontally or vertically.
C. enable mixed nodes with different capabilities within the same cell for administration purposes.
D. allow application servers having the same applications installed to be grouped logically for workload management.
Answer: C

12. A system administrator wants to improve response time and system load of a Web application running in a clustered environment.
What might the system administrator attempt to decrease the response time of the Web application?
A. Configure dynamic caching
B. Enable memory-to-memory replication
C. Configure session replication to use a database.
D. Ensure that all cluster members are in the same node group.
Answer: A

13. A system administrator needs to modify the configuration of an enterprise application within a flexible management environment. The system administrator can make the modification using wsadmin scripts by connecting to which of the following components?
A. Node agent
B. Job manager
C. Work manager
D. Administrative agent
E. Deployment manager
Answer: BE

14. What would have to be configured in order to implement memory-to-memory HTTP Session persistence?
A. Dynamic cache service and HTTP plug-in
B. Synchronization service and embedded Web server
C. Distributed environment settings in the web containers
D. Fast Response Cache Accelerator (FRCA) and external Web server
Answer: C

15. When configuring automated transaction peer recovery for recovering in-flight transactions from the transaction log, what is required from the file system?
A. RAID disks must be used to host the transaction log
B. Exclusive read only file locks and the ability to invalidate them
C. File locking must be disabled for Network File System Version 4 (NFSv4)
D. Lease-based exclusive locks on files
Answer: D

16. What are the three possible replication types for the dynamic caching service?
A. Client mode
B. Server mode
C. Not shared
D. Push only
E. Both push and pull
F. Broadcast mode
Answer: CDE

17. What is the Data Replication Service (DRS) used for? Please choose three from the following.
A. Node agents
B. Web servers
C. Caching Proxy
D. Dynamic cache replication
E. HTTP session persistence and failover
F. Stateful session EJB persistence and failover
Answer: DEF

18. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a flexible management topology and the network deployment cell?
A. Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model.
B. Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell.
C. The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell.
D. The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment manager.
Answer: A

19. In order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management environment, which one of the following steps must be completed?
A. Register directly with the job manager.
B. Register with the node agent on the job managers host.
C. Register with an administrative agent on the job managers host
D. First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager.
Answer: A

20. Which of the following items best gives a reason to perform an unattended installation of WebSphere Application Server?
A. The installation for the particular target platform is being done for the first time.
B. The installation for the particular target platform has been done before and will be repeated in the future.
C. The installation for WebSphere Application Server would initially not be able to include administrative security.
D. The installation for the particular target platform is expected to require a lot of adjustments to be done over several installation attempts.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-419
Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere Quality Stage v8 Examination
Last Update: Aug, 2009

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IBM 000-419 Exam - Cheat-Test.com Free 000-419 Sample Questions: 1. When running Word Investigation, producing a pattern report will help you do what? A. Refine a standardization rule set. B. Decide which fields to use for blocking fields. C. Discover inconsistencies in data type representation. D. Identify which patterns should survive. Answer: A 2. A client states that phone data is in the North American format: 999-999-9999. Which field mask would determine if the client is correct? A. C B. T C. X D. N Answer: B 3. What is a result when you increase the match cut-off setting? A. It minimizes the false positives. B. It minimizes the false negatives. C. It adds agreement weight. D. It subtracts agreement weight. Answer: A 4. Which technique can be used to reduce the processing time of the Match Frequency stage? A. Create a frequency file for all the fields in the input file. B. Create a frequency file for only the fields used for blocking and matching. C. Create a frequency file for only the fields used for matching. D. Create a frequency file for only the fields used for blocking. Answer: C 5. What are the two Match Specification probabilities that can be configured? (Choose two.) A. m probability B. u probability C. r probability D. pi probability Answer: A, B 6. Which three components must be specified to configure a match specification? (Choose three.) A. frequency file B. match test database C. Standardize stage D. sample data set E. Match stage Answer: A, B, D 7. Which two columns are outputs of the Match Frequency stage? (Choose two.) A. qsFreqAddressLine1 B. qsFreqFirstName C. qsFreqCount D. qsFreqColumnID Answer: C, D 8. Which two processing methods should use candidate selection? (Choose two.) A. real-time B. initial load C. one-time load D. delta load Answer: A, D 9. Which three types of rule set overrides are valid? (Choose three.) A. column type overrides B. classification overrides C. output pattern overrides D. unhandled pattern overrides E. input text overrides Answer: B, D, E 10. Which file contains the definition of the output structure of the standardize stage? A. Classification table B. Pattern-action C. Dictionary file D. Lookup tables Answer: C

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1. Which of the following is true regarding how SiteProtector can be deployed?
A. It can only be deployed as a stand-alone server or as an appliance.
B. It can be deployed in a stand-alone or distributed architecture.
C. It must be deployed by IBM ISS Professional Services.
D. It must be deployed with all Network IPS appliances.
Answer: B

2. Which component commits IDS events to the SiteProtector Database?
A. IDS Appliance
B. Agent Manager
C. Event Collector
D. Secure Sync
Answer: C

3. Which policy contains signature exceptions for specific VLANs?
A. Firewall
B. User Defined Events
C. Protection Domains
D. Connection Events
Answer: C

4. At the beginning of 2009, approximately how many URL's were contained in the IBM ISS Web Filter and Antispam Database?
A. 3 Billion
B. 9 Billion
C. 23 Million
D. 60 Million
Answer: B

5. Which of the following protocols is protected by the Proventia MFS appliance antivirus engine?
A. IMAP
B. SMTP
C. POP2
D. SFTP
Answer: B

6. The Proventia GX4004 can be used inline prevention mode with how many segments?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Six
D. Eight
Answer: A

7. Which of the following products competes with IBM Enterprise Vulnerability Assessment?
A. Snort
B. Cisco NAC
C. Qualys
D. TippingPoint
Answer: C

8. Proventia Desktop uses which antivirus engine?
A. Sophos
B. Norton
C. ClamAV
D. BitDefender
Answer: D

9. A Stealth Port Scan consists of which of the following?
A. Single packet with the PUSH flag set
B. Full TCP handshake
C. Single SYN packet
D. Single packet with the URG flag set
Answer: C

10. What function does the Agent Manager provide in SiteProtector?
A. Provides central alert storage and analysis
B. Acts as a communication channel for the Proventia appliances
C. Communicates vulnerability assessments to Proventia appliances
D. Compares, analyzes, and reports all Proventia events
Answer: B

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IBM 000-550 Exam - Cheat-Test.com Free 000-550 Sample Questions: 1. To administer a HotStandby database you need which privilege? A. Sys_Sync_Admin_Role B. Sys_Console_Role C. Sys_Hotstandby_Role D. Sys_Replication_Role Answer: B 2. To execute the HotStandby administrative commands, which type of access privilege would be needed? A. SYS_ADMIN_SYNC_ROLE B. SYNC_ADMIN_ROLE C. ADMIN_CONSOLE_ROLE D. SYS_CONSOLE_ROLE Answer: D 3. How many different installations of solidDB binaries can exist on the same host? A. one B. as many as can fit C. one per release of solidDB D. one per version of solidDB Answer: B 4. What are two possible conflict resolution methods between solidDB and a back-end database? (Choose two.) A. Source wins B. Reference C. Trigger D. UserExit E. Alert user Answer: A, D 5. It is possible when using solsql to run scripts either interactively or nested within another script. Which special character is used to identify that you want to execute a script file? A. * B. @ C. # D. ! Answer: B 6. Which ADMIN command is used to shut down the solidDB database? A. shutdown B. disconnect C. terminate D. close Answer: A 7. To set the log persistence level server-wide, which parameter would be set in the solid.ini file? A. LogLevel B. Isolation C. DurabilityLevel D. Adaptive Answer: C 8. solidDB can store Unicode characters. Which two data types should you use to store Unicode? (Choose two.) A. CLOB B. CHAR C. WCHAR D. VARCHAR E. WVARCHAR Answer: C, E 9. A conflict detection and resolution method within CDC is only available when you map your tables using ______. A. Standard B. One-to-One C. Consolidation D. Bidirectional replication Answer: A 10. You want to map multiple source tables to multiple target tables in the same subscription. These tables share the same table structure and similar table names. Which mapping method should you use? A. Standard B. Mirror C. LiveAudit D. One-to-One Answer: D More 000-550 Exam Questions Cheat-test 000-550 Certification Exam There are many online resources for preparing for the 000-550 exam. Read below to discover why Cheat-test.com is your premier source for practice tests, and true testing environment.