IBM 000-078 eServer BladeCenter certification

Before making your decision to take an IT certification, make sure that you can afford lots of time and hard work on it.Toady we are going to talk about the general steps on the way of getting an IT certification.Pay attention to the following steps if you are planning to take the IBM 000-078 test Exam.
The first step is to choose a certification. If you don’t know which one to take, you may post your thoughts and questions in some forum, maybe you’ll get your answer.
Secondly, evaluate your experience. Compare your experience with the IBM certification requirements, to find out how much time and hard work should be put on the studying.
Preparation books will certainly not make you an expert in subjects you’re not already an expert in. But, for the subject areas you know little or nothing about, a study guide provides you clues and guidance about what the important information from those subjects is when it comes to passing the IBM test exam. Are you bored by learning books by yourself? Why not visit some IT certification forums to see what other fellows are doing? You may regulate your study schedule in this way. Training classes are intensive training sessions designed to cram as much information into your head in the shortest period of time. You then take your free Test King IBM exam exam shortly after the classes.If you search on the Internet, you’ll find many free practice exams for your IBM 000-078 exam. Download them or try them online. It is a helpful way to exam your knowledge-mastering.It is always a good idea to go directly to the website of the IBM vendor or sponsor of your certification and see what online sources they may recommend.
After you have finished the above three step, you may book your exam now.
Once you have passed your IBM 000-078 exam and get your IBM certification, the next step to take is to stay certified. There always exist abundant certifications for you to get. Find out the next one and work at it.
You should always remember that your aim for getting the IBM certification is to get more knowledge and experience, instead of the certification itself. Only if you have got ready for the exam, you can take it.

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Be sure that enough time and hard work can be put on the IT certification if you are going to take one. Each certification has its own requirements, but the following five steps are basic and the same. The following steps are certain to clear your puzzles about the preparation process of your IBM 000-973 certification Exam.
Firstly, make your decision on which certification to take. In fact, some people just can’t decide it. Thus, this step is extremely important for them.
The second step you should take is to evaluate your experience. Find out what skills and experience the IBM certification is expecting. Then, decide what type of training is suitable for you.
Even if you're confident that you have sufficient knowledge across all 10 areas of subject matter to pass the exam, you should take some sample or practice exams before you go take the CT IBM examination test.To some candidates who are short of IBM test exam information, IT forums are good ways for them. The latest or most helpful messages on the exams will be posted in the forums. Achieving your goals without proper training is a sure road to failure. Knowing about a topic and having special expertise in it are completely different. One cannot be an expert in the IT industry without the proper foundation. Taking a training class for CT IBM certificate exam might be a guaranteed way.Search on Internet for free practice resource. Many also offer TestKing 000-973 study guides or detailed descriptions with each question. These can be used as supplements to your training and study, especially when you are looking for the most updated information. Another efficient way of study is to visit vendor sites frequently. Many vendors will post free resource and latest information in their official websites. Pay close attention to them.
Congratulations, you have finished your exam preparation. Next you need to do is to book your exam and take it.
If you are going to pursuit higher-laver certification, you can find out what update exams recertification or continuing certification require.
Keep it in your mind that we take the exams in order to learn more, instead of to get the IBM certification only. So, make sure you that you have mastered the required skills before you take the exams.

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(000-100) Enterprise Technical Support for AIX and Linux

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Free 000-100 Sample Questions:

1. What command is used to create an application Workload Partition?
A. mkwpar
B. crwpar
C. wparexec
D. mkappwpar
Answer: C

2. A customer wants to use Live Partition Mobility for system maintenance. What is the minimum requirement?
A. PowerHA
B. Virtual I/O server 1.4
C. PowerVM Standard Edition
D. PowerVM Enterprise Edition
Answer: D

3. A customer has a requirement for a new LPAR to run SUSE Linux using a SCSI adapter that is not currently supported in Linux. Which of the following solutions should be recommended?
A. Assign the adapter to a VIO Server.
B. Use AIX drivers to install the adapter in the Linux LPAR.
C. Use Linux Affinity in AIX to move the application from SUSE to AIX.
D. NFS mount the disks from an AIX LPAR hosting the SCSI adapter, to the Linux LPAR.
Answer: A

4. A system administrator has received a sysplan file to configure a new server. Which of the following is the method to deploy the new server with minimal effort?
A. Copy file on HMC and deploy partitions.
B. Send file to IBM deployment portal for conversion.
C. Copy the file to the managed system and run the deploy application.
D. Execute file in System Planning tool and chose destination server to automatically deploy partitions.
Answer: A

5. Which tool is the most cost and time effective for specifying adapter placement on new orders?
A. HMC
B. System planning tool
C. Tivoli Provisioning Manager
D. System planning tool + Workload estimator
Answer: B

6. How does a Power 570 need to be installed for optimum cooling?
A. With empty space at the top for free airflow
B. With empty space at the bottom for free airflow
C. In a cold/warm row setup with the hot-row at the back
D. In a cold/warm row setup with the hot-row at the front
Answer: C

7. What is the minimum number of power cable(s) that must be connected to power up a 16-core POWER 570 without errors in the managed frame?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: D

8. A customer has a new POWER6 system with 2 partitions that require a large amount of TCP network traffic to pass between them for backup purposes. Which solution provides the greatest throughput?
A. Virtual Ethernet
B. Integrated Virtual Ethernet (IVE)
C. One 10Gb Ethernet adapter assigned to each partition
D. Separate Host Ethernet Adapters (HEA) assigned to each partition
Answer: B

9. A customer has ordered a Power 570 with only 4 dual port fibre cards. Which configuration would allow 4 LPARs on this server to have multiple paths, with no single point of failure, for each SAN connection?
A. Assign each LPAR 2 fibre ports, each from a different fibre adapter
B. Dual VIO servers with 2 cards per server and mapping via virtual SCSI adapters
C. One VIO server mapping disks using dual virtual SCSI adapters from the 4 adapters
D. Assign each LPAR a fibre card and ensure each port is mapped to a separate fibre switch
Answer: B

10. Why is the "dyntrk" attribute of fcs adapters in AIX important?
A. It enables automatic discovery of cabling changes.
B. It enables fibre channel data packet dynamic tracing.
C. It allows the fibre card in the server to be relocated dynamically.
D. When using an SVC it allows the target LUNs to be migrated to different fabric.
Answer: A

11. A company has four LPARs configured as shown:
8 x 4.2GHz CPUs
16GB Memory
4 LPARs
LPAR 1: Test 1 CPU, 2GB Memory, 1 Fibre Channel HBA, AIX
LPAR 2: Development 1 CPU, 2GB Memory, 1 Fibre Channel HBA, AIX LPAR 3: Prod 3 CPUs, 6GB Memory, 1 Fibre Channel HBA, AIX
LPAR 4: Web App 3 CPUs, 6GB Memory, 1 Fibre Channel HBA, SUSE Linux
Utilization over a 30 day period
LPAR 1: Average utilization was 15%, Peak utilization was 100% LPAR 2: Average utilization was 25%, Peak utilization was 100% LPAR 3: Average utilization was 50%, Peak utilization was 90% LPAR 4: Average utilization was 35%, Peak utilization was 100%
----------------------------------------------------------------
If there is a requirement for all 4 LPARs to be assigned to a shared pool, which of the following best describes the profile requirements?
A. LPARs 1 and 2, uncapped, SMT on, Weights between 25-30, min CPU 0.1, max CPU 1.0
LPARs 3 and 4, capped, SMT on, Weights between 100-130, min CPU 2.7, max CPU 3.0
B. LPARs 1 and 2, capped, SMT on, Weights between 25-30, min CPU 0.1, max CPU 1.0
LPARs 3 and 4, uncapped, SMT on, Weights between 100-130, min CPU 2.7, max CPU 3.0
C. LPARs 1 and 2, capped, SMT on, Weights between 100-130, min CPU 0.1, max CPU 1.0
LPARs 3 and 4, uncapped, SMT on, Weights between 25-30, min CPU 2.7, max CPU 3.0
D. LPARs 1 and 2, uncapped, SMT off, Weights between 25-30, min CPU 0.1, max CPU 1.0
LPARs 3 and 4, capped, SMT on, Weights between 100-130, min CPU 2.7, max CPU 3.0
Answer: B

12. A customer is planning to consolidate their existing servers currently running AIX 5.3 to a POWER6 570.
The customer has a test environment, a development environment and a production environment for two applications. Both the test and Development environments are very small and are only utilized when new releases are being developed and tested. They require less than 1 CPU each.
Both production applications require 2 CPUs for day-to-day operation and can require up to an additional 2 CPUs each during abrupt peak requirements. With performance in mind, what is the optimal design for the LPARs?
A. Use micro-partitioning for test and development environments, and DLPAR for the production environment.
B. Create workload partitions for all test, development, and production environments to keep production prioritized.
C. Use micro-partitioning for test and development environment, and shared processor pool for the production environment.
D. Create standard LPARs for all test, development, and production environment to keep all partitions separate and isolated.
Answer: C

13. A customer is implementing a dual Virtual IO server environment to service 4 LPARs. If each operating system image requires 18 GB of disk space, what is the minimum amount of SCSI resources necessary?
A. Two SCSI paths and two 73GB SCSI disks
B. Two SCSI paths and two 146GB SCSI disks
C. Four SCSI paths and four 73GB SCSI disks
D. Two dual port SCSI RAID adapters with two 73GB SCSI disks
Answer: B

14. A Power 570 is planned to run with a dual VIOS environment. The VIOS should be equipped for maximum resilience to provide LUN access to both VIO servers. What are the minimum requirements?
A. Two dual port adapters
B. Four dual port adapters
C. Two single port adapters
D. Four single port adapters
Answer: D

15. Customer wants to be able to access a GPFS filesystem from an NFS client, even if the GPFS node exporting the filesystem fails. What must be used to achieve this?
A. Use automount on the client.
B. Use NFS V3 or NFS V4 Replicas.
C. Use HANFS from both GPFS nodes.
D. Use NFS V4 Replicas from 2 GPFS nodes.
Answer: D

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IBM 000-046 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-046 Sample Questions:

1. Which type of DOORS user can create projects?
A. Edit DXL
B. Standard
C. Project Manager
D. Database Manager
Answer: D

2. Which statement is true about Private, Public, and Custom views?
A. All users have modify access to a Public view.
B. The Standard view can have custom access rights.
C. A view can only be made Private if the For Module check box is selected.
D. Access rights for a Custom view are inherited from the currently displayed view.
Answer: D

3. Which two module attributes can be used to generate a report about changes to the module? (Choose two.)
A. Created By
B. Created On
C. Last Modified By
D. Last Modified On
Answer: CD

4. According to the Standish Group, what percent of IT project failures result from poor requirements gathering, analysis, and management?
A. 30 to 40 percent
B. 40 to 50 percent
C. 50 to 60 percent
D. 60 to 70 percent
Answer: D

5. Which challenge faced by IT projects is most directly addressed with Requirements Management tools?
A. cost
B. time
C. scope
D. compliance
Answer: C

6. What is Requirements Management used for at the board level?
A. to develop tools
B. for project management
C. to develop a corporate vision
D. for portfolio and program management
Answer: C

7. Which type of requirement on the V-model focuses on design and implementation?
A. system
B. operational
C. component
D. stakeholder
Answer: C

8. When tracking development traceability along the V-model, what satisfies stakeholder requirements?
A. vision
B. system tests
C. acceptance tests
D. system requirements
Answer: D

9. What is NOT a characteristic of good requirements?
A. clear
B. correct
C. complete
D. ambiguous
Answer: D

10. What are three characteristics of a good requirements set? (Choose three.)
A. modular
B. sufficient
C. consistent
D. exhaustive
Answer: ABC

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IBM 000-377 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 000-377 Sample Questions:

1. Which of the following is an option given in the First Steps application that runs automatically after installation?
A. Start the server.
B. Execute wsadmin.
C. Configure resources.
D. Run the Snoop servlet.
Answer: A

2. Which one of the following can be used to instantiate resource adapter classes for establishing and maintaining resource connections?
A. a data source
B. connection factories
C. connection pool settings
D. a JMS activation specification
Answer: B

3. global security is turned on for a federated cell using a file-based federated repository. The administrator created a new security domain called App1Domain using local operating system registry and mapping it to the application server. The administrator also created a new local operating system user ID App1Admin?
Which one of the following is true when the new security domain is enabled to secure Application1?
A. The administrator can access Application1.
B. The administrator can disable Application1 security.
C. App1Admin can disable Application1 security.
D. App1Admin can access the administrative console.
Answer: B

4. Aside from the administrative console and the addNode command, what other facilities does WebSphere Application Server provide for federating nodes into cells?
A. wsadmin
B. The administrative agent
C. The Profile Management Tool (PMT)
D. Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy Module
Answer: C

5. When backing up WebSphere Application Server configuration and runtime settings, which of the following commands would be relevant?
A. backupConfig -location location
B. restoreConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
C. manageprofiles -backupProfile -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
D. wsadmin -backupConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
Answer: C

6. What can the system administrator do to distribute incoming HTTP traffic across a farm of Web servers?
A. Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the cluster
B. Implement the Tivoli Access Manager as a load balancer
C. Implement the caching proxy server component of the Edge Components
D. Use the Load Balancer component of the Edge Components
Answer: D

7. What is the sequence of components which would typically be involved in the flow of a request from a Web browser to a servlet?
A. External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and EJB Container
B. Load Balancer, Embedded HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and Web Container
C. Edge Component, HTTP Server Plug-in, external HTTP Server, and Web Container
D. External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in, embedded HTTP Server and Web Container
Answer: D

8. How could an administrator manage multiple stand-alone application servers on different hosts in a network?
By using:
A. a job manager which administers multiple application server nodes through administrative agents.
B. a deployment manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their node agents.
C. a high availability manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their administrative agents.
D. an administrative agent which administers multiple application server nodes through their administrative service.
Answer: A

9. Which type of server is recommended to be placed in the demilitarized zone (DMZ)?
A. Generic servers
B. Application servers
C. Managed HTTP servers
D. Unmanaged HTTP servers
Answer: D

10. What is the advantage of deploying more than one messaging engine and linking them together in a topology that has multiple interconnected service integration buses (SIBus)?
A. Enable protocol transformation between buses.
B. Improve the availability of the persistent storage.
C. Spread messaging workload across multiple servers.
D. Preserve message ordering through the messaging engines.
Answer: C

11. Why does IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment utilize node groups to implement a distributed environment? To:
A. segment multiple security domains within a WebSphere cell.
B. define the logical grouping of application servers to scale horizontally or vertically.
C. enable mixed nodes with different capabilities within the same cell for administration purposes.
D. allow application servers having the same applications installed to be grouped logically for workload management.
Answer: C

12. A system administrator wants to improve response time and system load of a Web application running in a clustered environment.
What might the system administrator attempt to decrease the response time of the Web application?
A. Configure dynamic caching
B. Enable memory-to-memory replication
C. Configure session replication to use a database.
D. Ensure that all cluster members are in the same node group.
Answer: A

13. A system administrator needs to modify the configuration of an enterprise application within a flexible management environment. The system administrator can make the modification using wsadmin scripts by connecting to which of the following components?
A. Node agent
B. Job manager
C. Work manager
D. Administrative agent
E. Deployment manager
Answer: BE

14. What would have to be configured in order to implement memory-to-memory HTTP Session persistence?
A. Dynamic cache service and HTTP plug-in
B. Synchronization service and embedded Web server
C. Distributed environment settings in the web containers
D. Fast Response Cache Accelerator (FRCA) and external Web server
Answer: C

15. When configuring automated transaction peer recovery for recovering in-flight transactions from the transaction log, what is required from the file system?
A. RAID disks must be used to host the transaction log
B. Exclusive read only file locks and the ability to invalidate them
C. File locking must be disabled for Network File System Version 4 (NFSv4)
D. Lease-based exclusive locks on files
Answer: D

16. What are the three possible replication types for the dynamic caching service?
A. Client mode
B. Server mode
C. Not shared
D. Push only
E. Both push and pull
F. Broadcast mode
Answer: CDE

17. What is the Data Replication Service (DRS) used for? Please choose three from the following.
A. Node agents
B. Web servers
C. Caching Proxy
D. Dynamic cache replication
E. HTTP session persistence and failover
F. Stateful session EJB persistence and failover
Answer: DEF

18. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a flexible management topology and the network deployment cell?
A. Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model.
B. Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell.
C. The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell.
D. The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment manager.
Answer: A

19. In order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management environment, which one of the following steps must be completed?
A. Register directly with the job manager.
B. Register with the node agent on the job managers host.
C. Register with an administrative agent on the job managers host
D. First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager.
Answer: A

20. Which of the following items best gives a reason to perform an unattended installation of WebSphere Application Server?
A. The installation for the particular target platform is being done for the first time.
B. The installation for the particular target platform has been done before and will be repeated in the future.
C. The installation for WebSphere Application Server would initially not be able to include administrative security.
D. The installation for the particular target platform is expected to require a lot of adjustments to be done over several installation attempts.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-419
Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere Quality Stage v8 Examination
Last Update: Aug, 2009

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IBM 000-419 Exam - Cheat-Test.com Free 000-419 Sample Questions: 1. When running Word Investigation, producing a pattern report will help you do what? A. Refine a standardization rule set. B. Decide which fields to use for blocking fields. C. Discover inconsistencies in data type representation. D. Identify which patterns should survive. Answer: A 2. A client states that phone data is in the North American format: 999-999-9999. Which field mask would determine if the client is correct? A. C B. T C. X D. N Answer: B 3. What is a result when you increase the match cut-off setting? A. It minimizes the false positives. B. It minimizes the false negatives. C. It adds agreement weight. D. It subtracts agreement weight. Answer: A 4. Which technique can be used to reduce the processing time of the Match Frequency stage? A. Create a frequency file for all the fields in the input file. B. Create a frequency file for only the fields used for blocking and matching. C. Create a frequency file for only the fields used for matching. D. Create a frequency file for only the fields used for blocking. Answer: C 5. What are the two Match Specification probabilities that can be configured? (Choose two.) A. m probability B. u probability C. r probability D. pi probability Answer: A, B 6. Which three components must be specified to configure a match specification? (Choose three.) A. frequency file B. match test database C. Standardize stage D. sample data set E. Match stage Answer: A, B, D 7. Which two columns are outputs of the Match Frequency stage? (Choose two.) A. qsFreqAddressLine1 B. qsFreqFirstName C. qsFreqCount D. qsFreqColumnID Answer: C, D 8. Which two processing methods should use candidate selection? (Choose two.) A. real-time B. initial load C. one-time load D. delta load Answer: A, D 9. Which three types of rule set overrides are valid? (Choose three.) A. column type overrides B. classification overrides C. output pattern overrides D. unhandled pattern overrides E. input text overrides Answer: B, D, E 10. Which file contains the definition of the output structure of the standardize stage? A. Classification table B. Pattern-action C. Dictionary file D. Lookup tables Answer: C

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Free 000-530 Sample Questions:

1. Which of the following is true regarding how SiteProtector can be deployed?
A. It can only be deployed as a stand-alone server or as an appliance.
B. It can be deployed in a stand-alone or distributed architecture.
C. It must be deployed by IBM ISS Professional Services.
D. It must be deployed with all Network IPS appliances.
Answer: B

2. Which component commits IDS events to the SiteProtector Database?
A. IDS Appliance
B. Agent Manager
C. Event Collector
D. Secure Sync
Answer: C

3. Which policy contains signature exceptions for specific VLANs?
A. Firewall
B. User Defined Events
C. Protection Domains
D. Connection Events
Answer: C

4. At the beginning of 2009, approximately how many URL's were contained in the IBM ISS Web Filter and Antispam Database?
A. 3 Billion
B. 9 Billion
C. 23 Million
D. 60 Million
Answer: B

5. Which of the following protocols is protected by the Proventia MFS appliance antivirus engine?
A. IMAP
B. SMTP
C. POP2
D. SFTP
Answer: B

6. The Proventia GX4004 can be used inline prevention mode with how many segments?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Six
D. Eight
Answer: A

7. Which of the following products competes with IBM Enterprise Vulnerability Assessment?
A. Snort
B. Cisco NAC
C. Qualys
D. TippingPoint
Answer: C

8. Proventia Desktop uses which antivirus engine?
A. Sophos
B. Norton
C. ClamAV
D. BitDefender
Answer: D

9. A Stealth Port Scan consists of which of the following?
A. Single packet with the PUSH flag set
B. Full TCP handshake
C. Single SYN packet
D. Single packet with the URG flag set
Answer: C

10. What function does the Agent Manager provide in SiteProtector?
A. Provides central alert storage and analysis
B. Acts as a communication channel for the Proventia appliances
C. Communicates vulnerability assessments to Proventia appliances
D. Compares, analyzes, and reports all Proventia events
Answer: B

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IBM 000-550 Exam - Cheat-Test.com Free 000-550 Sample Questions: 1. To administer a HotStandby database you need which privilege? A. Sys_Sync_Admin_Role B. Sys_Console_Role C. Sys_Hotstandby_Role D. Sys_Replication_Role Answer: B 2. To execute the HotStandby administrative commands, which type of access privilege would be needed? A. SYS_ADMIN_SYNC_ROLE B. SYNC_ADMIN_ROLE C. ADMIN_CONSOLE_ROLE D. SYS_CONSOLE_ROLE Answer: D 3. How many different installations of solidDB binaries can exist on the same host? A. one B. as many as can fit C. one per release of solidDB D. one per version of solidDB Answer: B 4. What are two possible conflict resolution methods between solidDB and a back-end database? (Choose two.) A. Source wins B. Reference C. Trigger D. UserExit E. Alert user Answer: A, D 5. It is possible when using solsql to run scripts either interactively or nested within another script. Which special character is used to identify that you want to execute a script file? A. * B. @ C. # D. ! Answer: B 6. Which ADMIN command is used to shut down the solidDB database? A. shutdown B. disconnect C. terminate D. close Answer: A 7. To set the log persistence level server-wide, which parameter would be set in the solid.ini file? A. LogLevel B. Isolation C. DurabilityLevel D. Adaptive Answer: C 8. solidDB can store Unicode characters. Which two data types should you use to store Unicode? (Choose two.) A. CLOB B. CHAR C. WCHAR D. VARCHAR E. WVARCHAR Answer: C, E 9. A conflict detection and resolution method within CDC is only available when you map your tables using ______. A. Standard B. One-to-One C. Consolidation D. Bidirectional replication Answer: A 10. You want to map multiple source tables to multiple target tables in the same subscription. These tables share the same table structure and similar table names. Which mapping method should you use? A. Standard B. Mirror C. LiveAudit D. One-to-One Answer: D More 000-550 Exam Questions Cheat-test 000-550 Certification Exam There are many online resources for preparing for the 000-550 exam. Read below to discover why Cheat-test.com is your premier source for practice tests, and true testing environment.

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000-J03 IBM Sys I Entry Level for BPs - Tech.Mastery Test V1

IBM 000-J03 Exam - Cheat-Test.com Free 000-J03 Sample Questions: Q: 1 Users running iSeries Access on their personal computers cannot obtain a sign-on screen. Twinax terminals are able to obtain a connection. What could be cause of the personal computer connection problem? A. TCP/IP is not active B. Subsystem QBATCH is not active C. Subsystem QINTER is not active D. The system is in a restricted state Answer: A Q: 2 Where is the assistance level for individuals specified? A. In the user profile B. In the job description C. In the system value QASTLVL D. In the workstation device description Answer: A Q: 3 Which of the following components included with iSeries Navigator is used to manage tasks across one or more systems simultaneously? A. Management Central B. Simple Cluster Management C. Symmetric Multiprocessing D. System Manager for iSeries Answer: A Q: 4 Which of the following options are available from the CL command WRKSPLF (work with spool files) screen? A. Send, Save, Delete B. Reroute, Send, Change C. Attributes, Save, Hold D. Change, Release, Attributes Answer: D Q: 5 A customer ran the WRKQRY command and received a message that the Query for i5/OS licensed program is not available. The licensed program 5722-QU1 had been installed. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem? A. Required components for the base option have not been installed B. The Query for i5/OS (5722-QU1) licensed program is set in restricted mode C. The license key for Query for i5/OS (5722-QU1) licensed program was not entered D. The Query for i5/OS (5722-QU1) licensed program has an installed status of *error Answer: C Q: 6 Which values does the CL command CHGSYSVAL SYSVAL (QTOTJOB) VALUE(750) set? A. The total number of jobs in QCTF B. The total number of jobs in the system message queue C. The total number of active jobs allowed on the system D. The total number of active jobs for which storage must be allocated Answer: D Q: 7 A customer is planning to manage a system using iSeries Navigator. Which of the following licensed programs is required before iSeries Navigator can be used? A. IBM Connect 2.0 LPP (5733-CO2) B. XML Toolkit for iSeries (5733-XT1) C. IBM iSeries Access for Windows (5722-XE1) D. IBM WebSphere Application Server (5722-WAS) Answer: C Q: 8 How can a system administrator obtain detailed information on a message logged in the QSYSOPR message queue? A. Use the DSPJOBLOG command B. Place the cursor on the message, press F1 C. Use the DSPMSGD command to obtain the information D. Use the DSPLOG command to find the entry, and press F1 on the message Answer: B Q: 9 If a system is placed in a restricted state, which subsystem would still be running? A. QCTL B. QCMN C. QINTER D. QBATCH Answer: A Q: 10 A customer has installed a System i520 Express Growth with RAID and requires more disk space. How many disk units can be added to provide the maximum disk space, WITHOUT requiring additional PCI-X I/O towers? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 Answer: B Q: 11 Which iSeries Navigator category would be used to configure Electronic Service Agent and ECS for access through the Internet? A. Basic Operations B. Management Central C. Configuration and Service D. Network Answer: D Q: 12 A customer is upgrading their i520 IBM Operating System from V5R3 to V5R4. What must be done on the system before the installation can be done? A. Increase the memory B. Add additional disk units C. Allocate an alternate IPL device D. Allocate space for the license internal code Answer: D Q: 13 Which save option should be used before loading and applying an IBM cumulative PTF? A. Select Option 21. Save Entire System from the GO SAVE menu B. Select Option 23. Save All User Data from the GO SAVE menu C. Select Option 22. Save System Data Only from the GO SAVE menu D. Select Option 41. All IBM libraries other than system library from the GO SAVE menu Answer: A Q: 14 Which of the following licensed programs is included in the System i520 Express Entry configuration? A. Query for i5/OS (5722-QU1) B. iSeries Access for Windows (5722-XE1) C. WebSphere Development Studio (5722-WDS) D. WebSphere Application Server Express (5722-IWE/WE1) Answer: D Q: 15 A system administrator wants to set up a daily backup schedule to save all user libraries and automatically print detailed reports after the backup has completed. Which of the following can be used to accomplish this? A. Select iSeries Navigator - Backup Policies, and create a daily backup schedule. B. Select option 21 and Save entire system on menu GO SAVE and set the start time to the desired time. C. Create an entry in the iSeries Job Scheduler to run a SAVLIB *NONSYS command for each day of the week you wish the backup to run. D. Create an entry in the iSeries Job Scheduler to run the SAVLIB *ALLUSR command for each day of the week you wish the backup to run. Answer: A Q: 16 The security system value has been changed from security level 20 to security level 40. Which of the following must be executed to prevent a user from changing and deleting objects on the system? A. Remove *ALLOBJ from the user profile. B. Remove *SPLCTL and *JOBCTL from the user profile. C. Change the object authority to *EXCLUDE for the user profile. D. Change the limit capabilities option to *YES for the user profile Answer: A Q: 17 A customer with an installed system i520 Express (1200/60) wants to replace the base twinax console with a LAN console and install a 4811 IXS. In addition to replacing the FC #5540 Twinax console indicator with an FC #5553 Embedded Ethernet Console indicator, which of the following is the LEAST expensive solution? A. Order 4811 IXS and PCI-X Expansion Tower 5095 B. Order 4811 IXS and PCI-X Expansion Tower 5094 C. Order 4811 IXS and PCI-X Expansion Tower 5790 D. Order 4811 IXS and remove the 9746 Twinax card Answer: D Q: 18 Which of the following needs to be completed after restoring user profiles? A. RSTAUT B. RSTCFG C. RSTOBJ D. RSTDLO Answer: A Q: 19 A customer wants to run a Web-based application on an i520 Express that requires 3200 CPW and 20 interactive CPW. Of the seven i520 Express configurations, which is the minimum configuration that satisfies this requirement? A. Turbo B. Growth C. Growth + RAID D. Entry Plus + RAID Answer: A Q: 20 A customer added new disk drives to their i520 Express that has RAID protection. What needs to be done after the new disk drives are configured? A. Add the units to the ASP and start mirrored protection B. Enable compression on all disks and add them to the ASP C. Start device parity and then add the disk drives to the ASP D. Add the disk drives to the ASP and then start device parity Answer: C Q: 21 Which are the four operating modes on the System i control panel? A. Manual, Normal, Secure, Auto B. Normal, Secure, Auto, Service C. Auto, Normal, Restricted, Service D. Secure, Manual, Normal, Restricted Answer: A Q: 22 A PTF was ordered and applied, and the status is showing ACN (Action needed). Where is the information found that explains what is required to fully apply this PTF? A. Joblog B. History log C. Cumulative PTF package D. Cover letter for the PTF Answer: D Q: 23 A customer with an installed System i520 Express needs to install one additional Ethernet adapter. They need to attach to 1Gbps LANs with enough flexibility to attach to lower speed LANs and only slot C04 is available. Which of the following satisfies the requirement? A. 5701 - (single port) Ethernet adapter with UTP connections B. 5700 - (single port) Ethernet adapter with Optical connections C. 5706 - Smart IOA (dual port) Ethernet adapter with UTP connections D. 5707 - Smart IOA (dual port) Ethernet adapter with Optical connections Answer: C Q: 24 Which of the following environments does the Virtual Partition Manager (VPM) support? A. Two i5/OS partitions and two AIX Partitions B. One i5/OS partition and four Linux Partitions C. Two i5/OS partitions and two Linux Partitions D. One i5/OS partition, Three Linux partitions and one AIX Partition Answer: B Q: 25 The System i architecture is represented by a hierarchy with four building blocks. Which of the following represents the order of the hierarchy, from the bottom to the top? A. Application support, Licensed Internal Code (LIC), Operating System, Programming support B. Licensed Internal Code (LIC), Operating System, Programming support, Application support C. Operating System, Licensed Internal Code (LIC), Programming support, Application support D. Licensed Internal Code (LIC), Programming support, Operating System, Application support Answer: B

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Q: 1 Which of the following is the least expensive upgrade option for a customer with System i5 520 Express Entry Plus who wishes to add significant Domino and Linux workloads?
A. Order Accelerator
B. Order processor upgrade to 520 Express Turbo
C. Order processor upgrade to 520 Express Growth
D. Order two additional DASD and 2GB of main memory
Answer: A

Q: 2 Which of the following is an advantage of the System i microprocessor design hierarchy?
A. It protects the applications from hardware technology changes.
B. It is specifically designed for compute-intensive applications.
C. It shares resources with multiple, heterogeneous, concurrent systems.
D. It offloads I/O and communication-intensive tasks from the central processor.
Answer: D

Q: 3 Which of the following allows applications or services running in a Linux partition to communicate to an i5/OS partition?
A. iSCSI
B. ODBC Connection
C. High Speed Link
D. Virtual Ethernet
Answer: D

Q: 4 Which feature of i5/OS provides workload management functions to optimize performance and maintain integrity?
A. i5/OS subsystems
B. Single Level Storage
C. IBM Virtualization Engine
D. Independent Auxiliary Storage Pool (iASP)
Answer: A

Q: 5 A System i5 prospect is starting to look for an ERP solution. What should be the first steps in the selling process?
A. Discuss their financial commitment to the project and their willingness to grow the project and budget if additional features are cost-justifiable.
B. Prepare a preliminary technical solution proposal document with numbers and timeframes for the customer's review.
C. Calculate the expected ROI through discussion with the customer to demonstrate value and benefits of proceeding.
D. Determine their budget and application requirements, and discuss references of similar solutions that are already operational.
Answer: D

Q: 6 A System i sales rep has proposed a System i5 Express solution to a customer. A broker recently presented the alternative of an older iSeries with similar cpw. How should the sales rep initially counter the used/second hand equipment proposal?
A. Present consultant reports and/or white papers showing System i Total Cost of Ownership benefits.
B. Explain that Express models have low-cost upgrade options and that upgrades from the older models have been withdrawn.
C. Discuss "hidden costs" of used equipment such as hardware maintenance, software tiers, shipping, SWMA, after-license cost, etc.
D. Contact the assigned IBM representative to provide a detailed pricing comparison and, if needed, pursue a special bid.
Answer: C

Q: 7 Which of the following provides the highest speed connectivity for disk and Virtual Ethernet when attaching an external xSeries?
A. PCI 2-Line WAN Adapter
B. PCI-X 1 Gb Ethernet LAN Adapter
C. PCI-X iSCSI Adapter
D. PCI-X Fibre Adapter
Answer: C

Q: 8 Which of the following is a reason to propose an external cable-attached tape drive instead of an internal tape drive?
A. Needed adapters and the drives themselves are typically less expensive for external tape solutions.
B. External tape drives allow more capacity per cartridge and/or tape library capabilities.
C. Customer needs to back up PCs managed by the System i (IXS/IXA/iSCSI), and this can only be done with switchable external drives.
D. Customer needs to save information on Quarter Inch Cartridge (QIC) media so they can exchange tapes with an older iSeries using that media.
Answer: B

Q: 9 Which of the following is an important software function that is new for V5R4?
A. Switchable IASPs
B. Virtual tape support
C. Cross-site mirroring
D. RAID-5 auxiliary cache
Answer: B

Q: 10 Which of the following is a benefit of consolidating multiple Linux servers on a System i server instead of on Intel?
A. Linux is included at no cost in System i Express Edition packages.
B. i5/OS applications simplify Linux configuration.
C. There are more Linux distribution options on System i.
D. Linux on System i optimizes utilization of system resources.
Answer: D

Q: 11 An Integrated xSeries Server or Adapter (IXS/IXA) can be used to do which of the following?
A. Connect a Blade Server to a System i.
B. Configure a Hardware Management Console (HMC).
C. Load and run Windows Server 2003 natively on a POWER processor.
D. Integrate Windows and i5/OS applications using a secure virtual network.
Answer: D

Q: 12 The Hardware Management Console (HMC) is used to do which of the following?
A. Activate the Accelerator.
B. Create and change partitions.
C. Configure a System i Ethernet adapter.
D. Install and manage an integrated System x adapter.
Answer: B

Q: 13 A prospect for System i5 Express is concerned about the strategic direction of the IBM System i product line. IBM's Systems Agenda speaks directly to this point. Which of the following is a characteristic of the IBM Systems Agenda?
A. IBM commits to virus-resistant systems.
B. IBM commits to consistent product announcement schedules.
C. IBM commits to flexible, open systems.
D. IBM commits to systems that provide the lowest cost of ownership.
Answer: C

Q: 14 Which of the following System i characteristics most contributes to rapid speed of deployment?
A. Pre-tested single entity operating system
B. Preloaded ISV applications
C. Adherence to industry standards
D. Simultaneous multithreading
Answer: A

Q: 15 Which of the following features of i5/OS has made the System i5 highly resistant to viruses?
A. Power Hypervisor
B. Single Level Store
C. Object-based architecture
D. Systems Licensed Internal Code (SLIC)
Answer: C

Q: 16 Which of the following describes software maintenance coverage for the IBM System i5 520 Express Edition announced in 2006?
A. Three years of software maintenance must be added to the System i5 520 Express.
B. One year of software maintenance is included in the price of the System i5 520 Express.
C. One or three years of software maintenance is optional for the System i5 520 Express.
D. Three years of software maintenance are included in the price of the System i5 520 Express.
Answer: B

Q: 17 A prospect for a System i5 Express Edition has a need for two i5/OS partitions. Which of the following best describes how the i5/OS licensing will be handled?
A. An i5/OS license is needed for each i5/OS partition.
B. i5/OS licensing must be purchased at an extra cost for each processor.
C. An additional i5/OS license is only needed if a third partition is needed.
D. The needed i5/OS licensing is included in the Express edition.
Answer: D

Q: 18 Which of the following best summarizes the characteristics of the IBM System i5 520 Express configurations?
A. Flexible hardware and software configurations with full 5250 capability
B. Flexible hardware and software configurations with limited 5250 capability
C. Predefined hardware and software configurations with full 5250 capability
D. Predefined hardware and software configurations with limited 5250 capability
Answer: D

Q: 19 Which of the following capabilities of System i maximizes usage of resources in a single system and is not available in a multiple, standalone Intel server environment?
A. Reliability, Availability, Scalability (RAS)
B. Micro-partitioning
C. Virtual tape
D. Business Resilience
Answer: B

Q: 20 The Accelerator for System i5 increases which of the following?
A. Interactive capabilities and memory
B. Processing power and memory
C. Processing power and the number of partitions
D. Number of partitions and interactive capability
Answer: C

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1. HATS Web applications can be deployed to WebSphere Application Server running on which operating systems?
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B. IBM I or z/OS only
C. Linux on System i or System z only
D. Windows or Linux only
Answer: A

2. Which aspect of a HATS project CANNOT be migrated automatically?
A. screen customizations (.evnt files)
B. host connection properties in the .hco files
C. Javascript files (.js files)
D. screen capture files (.hsc files)
Answer: C

3. Users interact with an instance of a HATS rich client application using a transformation view. What is NOT a part of the transformation view?
A. toolbar
B. application keypad
C. OIA
D. transformation area
Answer: B

4. Which macro action CANNOT be used in conjunction with an Integration Object?
A. Conditional
B. Perform
C. PlayMacro
D. Trace
Answer: B

5. What is an invalid way to use macros in a HATS application?
A. as an action, such as the play macro action or the play macro transaction action
B. to connect or disconnect a particular host connection
C. as input into the wizard that generates a Web service
D. as a macro button on a transformation
Answer: C

6. Text replacement can be defined at various artifact levels. What is NOT a valid level to define text replacement?
A. project level
B. rendering item level
C. screen customization level
D. transformation level
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C. Page
D. Dbspace
Answer: C

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A. Applications with variable and dynamic data records
B. Large data warehouses requiring cubing and analytics
C. Applications requiring dedicated hardware as part of the solution
D. High-transaction OLTP workloads
Answer: D

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B. Large, medium, and small businesses
C. Small businesses only
D. Small businesses with a team of database administrators
Answer: B

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A. Functional extensions can be added to support new business problem domains
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C. Uptime of at most 80% can be achieved using continuous availability features
D. Databases must be administered by a local database administrator
Answer: A

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B. Data can be exported to flat files
C. Only a single IDS instance can be online and active at a time
D. Autonomic features offer near hands-free administration
Answer: D

6. Which of the following administrative processes can IDS handle automatically?
A. Storage provisioning
B. Statistics collection
C. Database schema optimization
D. Data re-distribution
Answer: B

7. The MACH11 high availability technology in IDS offers which of the following benefits?
A. The ability to replicate subsets of a database
B. The ability to create multiple secondary copies of the primary server
C. The ability to replicate data between different versions and editions of IDS
D. The ability to achieve redundancy using expensive hardware and third party software
Answer: B

8. Which statement about the OpenAdmin Tool (OAT) is true?
A. It is only available for IDS Express edition
B. It is a separate, add-on feature that is chargeable
C. It can manage hundreds of local or remote IDS instances
D. It can manage, monitor, and administer local databases only
Answer: C

9. Which of the following statements about MACH11 high availability technology is true?
A. It requires high speed interconnect technology between nodes
B. It works only in a shared disk environment
C. It requires additional technology for disaster recovery
D. It provides multi-site, geographically remote availability
Answer: D

10. A small dentist office uses IDS as the backend database for their operational system. A small Intel-based system with a single processor and 2 GB of memory is used. It also runs the Windows operating system. Which edition of IDS is the minimum required?
A. IDS Express Edition
B. IDS Workgroup Edition
C. IDS Enterprise Edition
D. IDS Developer Edition
Answer: A