| IBM 000-J03 Exam - Cheat-Test.com Free 000-J03 Sample Questions: Q: 1 Users running iSeries Access on their personal computers cannot obtain a sign-on screen. Twinax terminals are able to obtain a connection. What could be cause of the personal computer connection problem? Q: 2 Where is the assistance level for individuals specified? Q: 3 Which of the following components included with iSeries Navigator is used to manage tasks across one or more systems simultaneously? Q: 4 Which of the following options are available from the CL command WRKSPLF (work with spool files) screen? Q: 5 A customer ran the WRKQRY command and received a message that the Query for i5/OS licensed program is not available. The licensed program 5722-QU1 had been installed. Q: 6 Which values does the CL command CHGSYSVAL SYSVAL (QTOTJOB) VALUE(750) set? Q: 7 A customer is planning to manage a system using iSeries Navigator. Which of the following licensed programs is required before iSeries Navigator can be used? Q: 8 How can a system administrator obtain detailed information on a message logged in the QSYSOPR message queue? Q: 9 If a system is placed in a restricted state, which subsystem would still be running? Q: 10 A customer has installed a System i520 Express Growth with RAID and requires more disk space. How many disk units can be added to provide the maximum disk space, WITHOUT requiring additional PCI-X I/O towers? Q: 11 Which iSeries Navigator category would be used to configure Electronic Service Agent and ECS for access through the Internet? Q: 12 A customer is upgrading their i520 IBM Operating System from V5R3 to V5R4. What must be done on the system before the installation can be done? Q: 13 Which save option should be used before loading and applying an IBM cumulative PTF? Q: 14 Which of the following licensed programs is included in the System i520 Express Entry configuration? Q: 15 A system administrator wants to set up a daily backup schedule to save all user libraries and automatically print detailed reports after the backup has completed. Which of the following can be used to accomplish this? Q: 16 The security system value has been changed from security level 20 to security level 40. Which of the following must be executed to prevent a user from changing and deleting objects on the system? Q: 17 A customer with an installed system i520 Express (1200/60) wants to replace the base twinax console with a LAN console and install a 4811 IXS. In addition to replacing the FC #5540 Twinax console indicator with an FC #5553 Embedded Ethernet Console indicator, which of the following is the LEAST expensive solution? Q: 18 Which of the following needs to be completed after restoring user profiles? Q: 19 A customer wants to run a Web-based application on an i520 Express that requires 3200 CPW and 20 interactive CPW. Of the seven i520 Express configurations, which is the minimum configuration that satisfies this requirement? Q: 20 A customer added new disk drives to their i520 Express that has RAID protection. What needs to be done after the new disk drives are configured? Q: 21 Which are the four operating modes on the System i control panel? Q: 22 A PTF was ordered and applied, and the status is showing ACN (Action needed). Where is the information found that explains what is required to fully apply this PTF? Q: 23 A customer with an installed System i520 Express needs to install one additional Ethernet adapter. They need to attach to 1Gbps LANs with enough flexibility to attach to lower speed LANs and only slot C04 is available. Which of the following satisfies the requirement? Q: 24 Which of the following environments does the Virtual Partition Manager (VPM) support? Q: 25 The System i architecture is represented by a hierarchy with four building blocks. Which of the following represents the order of the hierarchy, from the bottom to the top? |
Sunday, July 19, 2009
cheat-test 000-j03 free study guide, ibm 000-j03 training boot camp
000-J03 IBM Sys I Entry Level for BPs - Tech.Mastery Test V1
ibm 000-J02 test questions, 000-J02 cheat-test & testking dumps
Q: 1 Which of the following is the least expensive upgrade option for a customer with System i5 520 Express Entry Plus who wishes to add significant Domino and Linux workloads?
A. Order Accelerator
B. Order processor upgrade to 520 Express Turbo
C. Order processor upgrade to 520 Express Growth
D. Order two additional DASD and 2GB of main memory
Answer: A
Q: 2 Which of the following is an advantage of the System i microprocessor design hierarchy?
A. It protects the applications from hardware technology changes.
B. It is specifically designed for compute-intensive applications.
C. It shares resources with multiple, heterogeneous, concurrent systems.
D. It offloads I/O and communication-intensive tasks from the central processor.
Answer: D
Q: 3 Which of the following allows applications or services running in a Linux partition to communicate to an i5/OS partition?
A. iSCSI
B. ODBC Connection
C. High Speed Link
D. Virtual Ethernet
Answer: D
Q: 4 Which feature of i5/OS provides workload management functions to optimize performance and maintain integrity?
A. i5/OS subsystems
B. Single Level Storage
C. IBM Virtualization Engine
D. Independent Auxiliary Storage Pool (iASP)
Answer: A
Q: 5 A System i5 prospect is starting to look for an ERP solution. What should be the first steps in the selling process?
A. Discuss their financial commitment to the project and their willingness to grow the project and budget if additional features are cost-justifiable.
B. Prepare a preliminary technical solution proposal document with numbers and timeframes for the customer's review.
C. Calculate the expected ROI through discussion with the customer to demonstrate value and benefits of proceeding.
D. Determine their budget and application requirements, and discuss references of similar solutions that are already operational.
Answer: D
Q: 6 A System i sales rep has proposed a System i5 Express solution to a customer. A broker recently presented the alternative of an older iSeries with similar cpw. How should the sales rep initially counter the used/second hand equipment proposal?
A. Present consultant reports and/or white papers showing System i Total Cost of Ownership benefits.
B. Explain that Express models have low-cost upgrade options and that upgrades from the older models have been withdrawn.
C. Discuss "hidden costs" of used equipment such as hardware maintenance, software tiers, shipping, SWMA, after-license cost, etc.
D. Contact the assigned IBM representative to provide a detailed pricing comparison and, if needed, pursue a special bid.
Answer: C
Q: 7 Which of the following provides the highest speed connectivity for disk and Virtual Ethernet when attaching an external xSeries?
A. PCI 2-Line WAN Adapter
B. PCI-X 1 Gb Ethernet LAN Adapter
C. PCI-X iSCSI Adapter
D. PCI-X Fibre Adapter
Answer: C
Q: 8 Which of the following is a reason to propose an external cable-attached tape drive instead of an internal tape drive?
A. Needed adapters and the drives themselves are typically less expensive for external tape solutions.
B. External tape drives allow more capacity per cartridge and/or tape library capabilities.
C. Customer needs to back up PCs managed by the System i (IXS/IXA/iSCSI), and this can only be done with switchable external drives.
D. Customer needs to save information on Quarter Inch Cartridge (QIC) media so they can exchange tapes with an older iSeries using that media.
Answer: B
Q: 9 Which of the following is an important software function that is new for V5R4?
A. Switchable IASPs
B. Virtual tape support
C. Cross-site mirroring
D. RAID-5 auxiliary cache
Answer: B
Q: 10 Which of the following is a benefit of consolidating multiple Linux servers on a System i server instead of on Intel?
A. Linux is included at no cost in System i Express Edition packages.
B. i5/OS applications simplify Linux configuration.
C. There are more Linux distribution options on System i.
D. Linux on System i optimizes utilization of system resources.
Answer: D
Q: 11 An Integrated xSeries Server or Adapter (IXS/IXA) can be used to do which of the following?
A. Connect a Blade Server to a System i.
B. Configure a Hardware Management Console (HMC).
C. Load and run Windows Server 2003 natively on a POWER processor.
D. Integrate Windows and i5/OS applications using a secure virtual network.
Answer: D
Q: 12 The Hardware Management Console (HMC) is used to do which of the following?
A. Activate the Accelerator.
B. Create and change partitions.
C. Configure a System i Ethernet adapter.
D. Install and manage an integrated System x adapter.
Answer: B
Q: 13 A prospect for System i5 Express is concerned about the strategic direction of the IBM System i product line. IBM's Systems Agenda speaks directly to this point. Which of the following is a characteristic of the IBM Systems Agenda?
A. IBM commits to virus-resistant systems.
B. IBM commits to consistent product announcement schedules.
C. IBM commits to flexible, open systems.
D. IBM commits to systems that provide the lowest cost of ownership.
Answer: C
Q: 14 Which of the following System i characteristics most contributes to rapid speed of deployment?
A. Pre-tested single entity operating system
B. Preloaded ISV applications
C. Adherence to industry standards
D. Simultaneous multithreading
Answer: A
Q: 15 Which of the following features of i5/OS has made the System i5 highly resistant to viruses?
A. Power Hypervisor
B. Single Level Store
C. Object-based architecture
D. Systems Licensed Internal Code (SLIC)
Answer: C
Q: 16 Which of the following describes software maintenance coverage for the IBM System i5 520 Express Edition announced in 2006?
A. Three years of software maintenance must be added to the System i5 520 Express.
B. One year of software maintenance is included in the price of the System i5 520 Express.
C. One or three years of software maintenance is optional for the System i5 520 Express.
D. Three years of software maintenance are included in the price of the System i5 520 Express.
Answer: B
Q: 17 A prospect for a System i5 Express Edition has a need for two i5/OS partitions. Which of the following best describes how the i5/OS licensing will be handled?
A. An i5/OS license is needed for each i5/OS partition.
B. i5/OS licensing must be purchased at an extra cost for each processor.
C. An additional i5/OS license is only needed if a third partition is needed.
D. The needed i5/OS licensing is included in the Express edition.
Answer: D
Q: 18 Which of the following best summarizes the characteristics of the IBM System i5 520 Express configurations?
A. Flexible hardware and software configurations with full 5250 capability
B. Flexible hardware and software configurations with limited 5250 capability
C. Predefined hardware and software configurations with full 5250 capability
D. Predefined hardware and software configurations with limited 5250 capability
Answer: D
Q: 19 Which of the following capabilities of System i maximizes usage of resources in a single system and is not available in a multiple, standalone Intel server environment?
A. Reliability, Availability, Scalability (RAS)
B. Micro-partitioning
C. Virtual tape
D. Business Resilience
Answer: B
Q: 20 The Accelerator for System i5 increases which of the following?
A. Interactive capabilities and memory
B. Processing power and memory
C. Processing power and the number of partitions
D. Number of partitions and interactive capability
Answer: C
Tuesday, July 14, 2009
000-135 IBM training
000-135 Exam Preparation from CertifySky.com include:
Comprehensive questions with complete details
Questions accompanied by exhibits (depending on exam)
Verified Answers Researched by Industry Experts
Drag and Drop questions as experienced in the Actual Exams (depending on exam)
Questions updated on regular basis
These questions and answers are backed by our GUARANTEE
Like actual certification exams our product is in multiple-choice questions (MCQs)
IBM 000-135 Exam - CertifySky.com
Free 000-135 Sample Questions:
1. HATS Web applications can be deployed to WebSphere Application Server running on which operating systems?
A. Windows, AIX, IBM I, z/OS, or Linux on z
B. IBM I or z/OS only
C. Linux on System i or System z only
D. Windows or Linux only
Answer: A
2. Which aspect of a HATS project CANNOT be migrated automatically?
A. screen customizations (.evnt files)
B. host connection properties in the .hco files
C. Javascript files (.js files)
D. screen capture files (.hsc files)
Answer: C
3. Users interact with an instance of a HATS rich client application using a transformation view. What is NOT a part of the transformation view?
A. toolbar
B. application keypad
C. OIA
D. transformation area
Answer: B
4. Which macro action CANNOT be used in conjunction with an Integration Object?
A. Conditional
B. Perform
C. PlayMacro
D. Trace
Answer: B
5. What is an invalid way to use macros in a HATS application?
A. as an action, such as the play macro action or the play macro transaction action
B. to connect or disconnect a particular host connection
C. as input into the wizard that generates a Web service
D. as a macro button on a transformation
Answer: C
6. Text replacement can be defined at various artifact levels. What is NOT a valid level to define text replacement?
A. project level
B. rendering item level
C. screen customization level
D. transformation level
Answer: D
Comprehensive questions with complete details
Questions accompanied by exhibits (depending on exam)
Verified Answers Researched by Industry Experts
Drag and Drop questions as experienced in the Actual Exams (depending on exam)
Questions updated on regular basis
These questions and answers are backed by our GUARANTEE
Like actual certification exams our product is in multiple-choice questions (MCQs)
IBM 000-135 Exam - CertifySky.com
Free 000-135 Sample Questions:
1. HATS Web applications can be deployed to WebSphere Application Server running on which operating systems?
A. Windows, AIX, IBM I, z/OS, or Linux on z
B. IBM I or z/OS only
C. Linux on System i or System z only
D. Windows or Linux only
Answer: A
2. Which aspect of a HATS project CANNOT be migrated automatically?
A. screen customizations (.evnt files)
B. host connection properties in the .hco files
C. Javascript files (.js files)
D. screen capture files (.hsc files)
Answer: C
3. Users interact with an instance of a HATS rich client application using a transformation view. What is NOT a part of the transformation view?
A. toolbar
B. application keypad
C. OIA
D. transformation area
Answer: B
4. Which macro action CANNOT be used in conjunction with an Integration Object?
A. Conditional
B. Perform
C. PlayMacro
D. Trace
Answer: B
5. What is an invalid way to use macros in a HATS application?
A. as an action, such as the play macro action or the play macro transaction action
B. to connect or disconnect a particular host connection
C. as input into the wizard that generates a Web service
D. as a macro button on a transformation
Answer: C
6. Text replacement can be defined at various artifact levels. What is NOT a valid level to define text replacement?
A. project level
B. rendering item level
C. screen customization level
D. transformation level
Answer: D
ibm 000-M35 free braindumps and training
IBM 000-M35 Exam - Cheat-Test.com
Free 000-M35 Sample Questions:
1. What is the smallest unit of physical I/O in an IDS server?
A. Chunk
B. Extent
C. Page
D. Dbspace
Answer: C
2. In which of the following scenarios is IDS the best fit?
A. Applications with variable and dynamic data records
B. Large data warehouses requiring cubing and analytics
C. Applications requiring dedicated hardware as part of the solution
D. High-transaction OLTP workloads
Answer: D
3. What size businesses is IDS targeted to?
A. Medium-sized businesses only
B. Large, medium, and small businesses
C. Small businesses only
D. Small businesses with a team of database administrators
Answer: B
4. Which of the following is a key benefit of IDS?
A. Functional extensions can be added to support new business problem domains
B. Existing solutions do not scale as the business grows
C. Uptime of at most 80% can be achieved using continuous availability features
D. Databases must be administered by a local database administrator
Answer: A
5. Which of the following is a key benefit that allows IDS to excel in the small-medium business marketplace?
A. It only supports a small number of users
B. Data can be exported to flat files
C. Only a single IDS instance can be online and active at a time
D. Autonomic features offer near hands-free administration
Answer: D
6. Which of the following administrative processes can IDS handle automatically?
A. Storage provisioning
B. Statistics collection
C. Database schema optimization
D. Data re-distribution
Answer: B
7. The MACH11 high availability technology in IDS offers which of the following benefits?
A. The ability to replicate subsets of a database
B. The ability to create multiple secondary copies of the primary server
C. The ability to replicate data between different versions and editions of IDS
D. The ability to achieve redundancy using expensive hardware and third party software
Answer: B
8. Which statement about the OpenAdmin Tool (OAT) is true?
A. It is only available for IDS Express edition
B. It is a separate, add-on feature that is chargeable
C. It can manage hundreds of local or remote IDS instances
D. It can manage, monitor, and administer local databases only
Answer: C
9. Which of the following statements about MACH11 high availability technology is true?
A. It requires high speed interconnect technology between nodes
B. It works only in a shared disk environment
C. It requires additional technology for disaster recovery
D. It provides multi-site, geographically remote availability
Answer: D
10. A small dentist office uses IDS as the backend database for their operational system. A small Intel-based system with a single processor and 2 GB of memory is used. It also runs the Windows operating system. Which edition of IDS is the minimum required?
A. IDS Express Edition
B. IDS Workgroup Edition
C. IDS Enterprise Edition
D. IDS Developer Edition
Answer: A
000-019 Sample Questions - IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.8 Implementation
IBM 000-019 Exam - Cheat-Test.com
Free 000-019 Sample Questions:
1. Which Domain name is valid during an installation process?
A. itnmdomain
B. itnm-domain
C. ITNMDOMAIN
D. ITNM-DOMAIN
Answer: C
2.Which IP address must be specified as Network Address Translation (NAT) Gateway when adding a new NAT Gateway in IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition (Tivoli Network Manager)?
A. Public IP address of NAT Gateway
B. Private IP address of NAT Gateway
C. IP address of Tivoli Network Manager Server
D. Default Gateway IP address of Tivoli Network Manager Server
Answer: A
3. Which file needs to be configured to set the precedence of the events sent for Root Cause Analysis?
A. AmosSchema.cfg
B. NcoGateInserts.cfg
C. EntityEventToAlert.rule
D. SuppressContainedAlerts.rule
Answer: B
4. Which script must be run on the Tivoli Integrated Portal server to extract the events from OMNIbus so that data in reports can be viewed?
A./products/tcr/bin/configClient.sh
B./products/tcr/bin/startTCRserver.sh
C./products/tnm/bin/itnm_currentStatus
D./products/tnm/bin/itnm_polldata_pruning
Answer: C
5. Click the Exhibit button.
A Network Administrator has configured the Scope.
Which two IP addresses will be deemed in-scope during a discovery of the network? (Choose two.)
A. 20.20.5.1
B. 20.20.5.63
C. 10.10.0.68
D. 172.168.0.5
E. 192.168.25.15
Answer: BD
6. When defining a new chassis with interfaces and connecting this to an existing entity using the
PresetLayer functionality, which three items need to be provided? (Choose three.)
A. neighbor information
B. containment information
C. the ClassName for the new entity
D. define the agents to run against the device
E. the SNMP/telnet credentials for the new entity
F. entity definitions for the chassis and interfaces
Answer: ABF
7. Which field is required to be set in an event so that the Event Gateway passes it through to IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition for further processing on a default installation?
A. Node
B. Severity
C. AlertKey
D. LocalNodeAlias
Answer: D
8.Which three items affect the number of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition domains? (Choose three.)
A. discovery scheduling
B. installation username
C. administrative boundaries
D. IP address space structure
E. seeding method for the discovery
F. estimated number of network entities
Answer: CDF
9. Which three items add to the normal expected deployment time? (Choose three.)
A. seeding from a file and ping sweeping
B. multiple global SNMP community strings
C. non-contiguous or unmanageable networks
D. devices outside of the standard device support list
E. collector-based discovery from external data source
F. Federal Information Processing Standard compliance
Answer: CDE
10. When planning for an IBM Tivoli Network Manger IP Edition deployment, which network consideration requires the segmentation of the network into more than one domain?
A. overlapping 1-1 NAT address spaces
B. Multiprotocol Label Switching VPN network operation
C. overlapping non Network Address Translation (NAT) address spaces
D. Regional Network Operations Centers performing follow the Sun support in Houston, Paris, and Tokyo
Answer: C
11. When planning for an IBM Tivoli Network Manger IP Edition deployment, which three factors require a custom installation rather than a default? (Choose three.)
A. there is a Failover requirement
B. the requirement to install as a non-root user
C. firewall ACLs in operation within the managed network
D. system restrictions preventing the launching of X-windows
E. the Netcool Common Information Model database type is Oracle
F. Federal Information Processing Standard compliance is required
Answer: AEF
12. What is the minimum memory requirement for a server when planning a single server IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition deployment on a small network where all the required components are on the same server?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 4 GB
D. 8 GB
Answer: C
13.When planning distributed IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition( Tivoli Network Manager) deployment on a small network, what is the minimum memory requirement for the server where Tivoli Network Manager core components are installed?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 4 GB
D. 8 GB
Answer: B
14. Which three databases are supported by IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition? (Choose three.)
A. DB2 7.2
B. DB2 9.1
C. Oracle 10g
D. Oracle 11g
E. MSSQL 2005
F. Postgres SQL
Answer: BCD
15. A customer has a network with 3,000 devices, and each device has around 100 interfaces spread across the world. The expected growth of the network is 10% every year, that is 300 devices with 100 interfaces.
What is the best type of installation of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition (Tivoli Network Manager) based on current scenario?
A. one Tivoli Network Manager server with multiple pollers
B. two Tivoli Network Manager servers with multiple pollers
C. one Tivoli Network Manager server without multiple pollers
D. two Tivoli Network Manager servers without multiple pollers
Answer: A
16.Which two generic types of data sources can be used to provide input to the discovery system using the Collector Framework? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. CSV
C. Java
D. SNMP
E. Database
Answer: AB
17. Which two tasks need to be performed to prepare the Collector Framework for discovery? (Choose two.)
A. start the collector
B. configure the collector
C. enable the Collector Stitchers
D. initialize the database connections for seeding
E. ensure that the ping discovery process is running
Answer: AB
18. Given a customer network with five static Network Address Translation private address space areas of which two overlap, what is the minimum number of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition installations required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: A
19. In a customer network with the NOC network, three private address spaces behind static Network Address Translation gateways, and four overlapping VPN address spaces, how many installations are required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: C
20. Which browser version is supported when a client operating system is AIX 6.1 and using Web
applications of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition?
A. Mozilla Firefox 1.5
B. Mozilla Firefox 2.0
C. Mozilla Firefox 3.0
D. Netscape Navigator 8
Answer: A
Free 000-019 Sample Questions:
1. Which Domain name is valid during an installation process?
A. itnmdomain
B. itnm-domain
C. ITNMDOMAIN
D. ITNM-DOMAIN
Answer: C
2.Which IP address must be specified as Network Address Translation (NAT) Gateway when adding a new NAT Gateway in IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition (Tivoli Network Manager)?
A. Public IP address of NAT Gateway
B. Private IP address of NAT Gateway
C. IP address of Tivoli Network Manager Server
D. Default Gateway IP address of Tivoli Network Manager Server
Answer: A
3. Which file needs to be configured to set the precedence of the events sent for Root Cause Analysis?
A. AmosSchema.cfg
B. NcoGateInserts.cfg
C. EntityEventToAlert.rule
D. SuppressContainedAlerts.rule
Answer: B
4. Which script must be run on the Tivoli Integrated Portal server to extract the events from OMNIbus so that data in reports can be viewed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C
5. Click the Exhibit button.
A Network Administrator has configured the Scope.
Which two IP addresses will be deemed in-scope during a discovery of the network? (Choose two.)
A. 20.20.5.1
B. 20.20.5.63
C. 10.10.0.68
D. 172.168.0.5
E. 192.168.25.15
Answer: BD
6. When defining a new chassis with interfaces and connecting this to an existing entity using the
PresetLayer functionality, which three items need to be provided? (Choose three.)
A. neighbor information
B. containment information
C. the ClassName for the new entity
D. define the agents to run against the device
E. the SNMP/telnet credentials for the new entity
F. entity definitions for the chassis and interfaces
Answer: ABF
7. Which field is required to be set in an event so that the Event Gateway passes it through to IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition for further processing on a default installation?
A. Node
B. Severity
C. AlertKey
D. LocalNodeAlias
Answer: D
8.Which three items affect the number of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition domains? (Choose three.)
A. discovery scheduling
B. installation username
C. administrative boundaries
D. IP address space structure
E. seeding method for the discovery
F. estimated number of network entities
Answer: CDF
9. Which three items add to the normal expected deployment time? (Choose three.)
A. seeding from a file and ping sweeping
B. multiple global SNMP community strings
C. non-contiguous or unmanageable networks
D. devices outside of the standard device support list
E. collector-based discovery from external data source
F. Federal Information Processing Standard compliance
Answer: CDE
10. When planning for an IBM Tivoli Network Manger IP Edition deployment, which network consideration requires the segmentation of the network into more than one domain?
A. overlapping 1-1 NAT address spaces
B. Multiprotocol Label Switching VPN network operation
C. overlapping non Network Address Translation (NAT) address spaces
D. Regional Network Operations Centers performing follow the Sun support in Houston, Paris, and Tokyo
Answer: C
11. When planning for an IBM Tivoli Network Manger IP Edition deployment, which three factors require a custom installation rather than a default? (Choose three.)
A. there is a Failover requirement
B. the requirement to install as a non-root user
C. firewall ACLs in operation within the managed network
D. system restrictions preventing the launching of X-windows
E. the Netcool Common Information Model database type is Oracle
F. Federal Information Processing Standard compliance is required
Answer: AEF
12. What is the minimum memory requirement for a server when planning a single server IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition deployment on a small network where all the required components are on the same server?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 4 GB
D. 8 GB
Answer: C
13.When planning distributed IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition( Tivoli Network Manager) deployment on a small network, what is the minimum memory requirement for the server where Tivoli Network Manager core components are installed?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 4 GB
D. 8 GB
Answer: B
14. Which three databases are supported by IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition? (Choose three.)
A. DB2 7.2
B. DB2 9.1
C. Oracle 10g
D. Oracle 11g
E. MSSQL 2005
F. Postgres SQL
Answer: BCD
15. A customer has a network with 3,000 devices, and each device has around 100 interfaces spread across the world. The expected growth of the network is 10% every year, that is 300 devices with 100 interfaces.
What is the best type of installation of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition (Tivoli Network Manager) based on current scenario?
A. one Tivoli Network Manager server with multiple pollers
B. two Tivoli Network Manager servers with multiple pollers
C. one Tivoli Network Manager server without multiple pollers
D. two Tivoli Network Manager servers without multiple pollers
Answer: A
16.Which two generic types of data sources can be used to provide input to the discovery system using the Collector Framework? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. CSV
C. Java
D. SNMP
E. Database
Answer: AB
17. Which two tasks need to be performed to prepare the Collector Framework for discovery? (Choose two.)
A. start the collector
B. configure the collector
C. enable the Collector Stitchers
D. initialize the database connections for seeding
E. ensure that the ping discovery process is running
Answer: AB
18. Given a customer network with five static Network Address Translation private address space areas of which two overlap, what is the minimum number of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition installations required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: A
19. In a customer network with the NOC network, three private address spaces behind static Network Address Translation gateways, and four overlapping VPN address spaces, how many installations are required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: C
20. Which browser version is supported when a client operating system is AIX 6.1 and using Web
applications of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition?
A. Mozilla Firefox 1.5
B. Mozilla Firefox 2.0
C. Mozilla Firefox 3.0
D. Netscape Navigator 8
Answer: A
New IBM Exams Just Released
Cheat-test.com officially release the following IBM exams on their website:
000-018 - IBM Tivoli Service Request Manager V7.1 Implementation
000-023 - IBM Tivoli Support Provider Tools and Processes
000-025 - IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.1 Implementation
000-026 - Fundamentals of Applying Tivoli Storage Solutions 2009
000-027 - IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 Implementation
000-085 - IBM Blade Center V5
000-419 - IBM InfoSphere Quality Stage v8 Examination
000-530 - IBM Internet Security Systems Technical Test
000-550 - IBM Certified Specialist - IBM solidDB and IBM solidDB Unive
000-551 - IBM Certified Specialist - IBM Optim Implementation for Dist
000-M33 - IBM Rational Quality Manager Technical Sales Mastery Test
000-M34 - IBM Information Management pureXML Technical Mastery Test v2
cheat-test has a promotion for celebrating their 9th anniversary. Buy one get one free for only this month. That mean all their IBM exams get 50% off. What a big suprise!
000-018 - IBM Tivoli Service Request Manager V7.1 Implementation
000-023 - IBM Tivoli Support Provider Tools and Processes
000-025 - IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.1 Implementation
000-026 - Fundamentals of Applying Tivoli Storage Solutions 2009
000-027 - IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 Implementation
000-085 - IBM Blade Center V5
000-419 - IBM InfoSphere Quality Stage v8 Examination
000-530 - IBM Internet Security Systems Technical Test
000-550 - IBM Certified Specialist - IBM solidDB and IBM solidDB Unive
000-551 - IBM Certified Specialist - IBM Optim Implementation for Dist
000-M33 - IBM Rational Quality Manager Technical Sales Mastery Test
000-M34 - IBM Information Management pureXML Technical Mastery Test v2
cheat-test has a promotion for celebrating their 9th anniversary. Buy one get one free for only this month. That mean all their IBM exams get 50% off. What a big suprise!
Saturday, July 11, 2009
ibm 000-331 test questions - cheat-test.com
IBM 000-331 Exam - Cheat-Test.com
Free 000-331 Sample Questions:
1. Ethernet adapters on Power Systems servers support which of the following standard network protocols?
A. iSCSI
B. ESCON
C. TCP/IP
D. InfiniBand
Answer: C
2. Which of the following statements best describes POWER5 MCMs?
A. MCMs were used on the older POWER4 servers. POWER5 uses QCMs in place of the older MCM chips.
B. MCMs are POWER5+ dual core chips, shared L3 and L2 cache chips with two processor cores per processor card.
C. MCMs are available on the p5-575, p5-590, and p5-595 systems. They are quad core modules with 2 L3 cache and 4 processor cores.
D. MCMs are available on the p5-590 and p5-595 systems. They are 4 dual core POWER5 chips + 4 L3 cache chips for a total of 8 processor cores.
Answer: D
3. Which of the following characteristics of a POWER6 server has flexibility advantages over an Intel Quad Core based server?
A. POWER6 is fault tolerant.
B. POWER6 processors use HyperSocket technology.
C. POWER6 cores have a built in service processor.
D. POWER6 servers offer up to 10 partitions per core.
Answer: D
4. A company would like to consolidate many small applications with varying resource demands onto a midrange server with AIX6 to reduce system administration workload. What Power Systems technologies accomplish this objective?
A. SMT
B. Service Processor
C. Micro-partitioning
D. Partition Load Manager
Answer: C
5. A Bio Tech company is comparing HP and IBM servers for a HPC implementation. Which industry benchmark should be used to compare the system performance?
A. TPC-C
B. STREAM
C. SPECjbb
D. SPECfp2006
Answer: D
6. A customer has a need for high end graphics. Which of the following systems meets this need?
A. JS12
B. p575
C. p550
D. IntelliStation
Answer: D
7. A customer has two Sun v480 servers and plans to replace them with a Power Systems server. Which of the following can the customer use as an estimate of the relative performance between the existing servers and replacement server?
A. MIPS
B. RPE2
C. rPerf
D. ROLTP
Answer: B
8. An existing AIX 5.1 LPAR customer wants to move resources between logical partitions with minimal business disruption. Which of the following describes how this is done?
A. Implement DLPAR on AIX 5.1
B. Implement WPAR on AIX 5.3 or later
C. Implement DLPAR on AIX 5.3 or later
D. Implement Micropartitioning on AIX 5.1
Answer: C
9. A customer has three POWER4 servers and would like to replace them with a newer Power Systems server. What performance measurement should the customer use for comparison?
A. RPE2
B. ROLTP
C. rPerf
D. TPC-C
Answer: C
10. A customer currently has an 8-core p650 server with 64 GB memory that is nearing CPU capacity. Transaction processing requirements will nearly double in the next three years. There is a limited budget, but they need a new server now. Which of the following is the lowest-cost POWER6 option that would satisfy the requirements?
A. 520 2-core
B. 550 4-core
C. 570 8-core
D. JS22 Blade 4-core
Answer: B
Free 000-331 Sample Questions:
1. Ethernet adapters on Power Systems servers support which of the following standard network protocols?
A. iSCSI
B. ESCON
C. TCP/IP
D. InfiniBand
Answer: C
2. Which of the following statements best describes POWER5 MCMs?
A. MCMs were used on the older POWER4 servers. POWER5 uses QCMs in place of the older MCM chips.
B. MCMs are POWER5+ dual core chips, shared L3 and L2 cache chips with two processor cores per processor card.
C. MCMs are available on the p5-575, p5-590, and p5-595 systems. They are quad core modules with 2 L3 cache and 4 processor cores.
D. MCMs are available on the p5-590 and p5-595 systems. They are 4 dual core POWER5 chips + 4 L3 cache chips for a total of 8 processor cores.
Answer: D
3. Which of the following characteristics of a POWER6 server has flexibility advantages over an Intel Quad Core based server?
A. POWER6 is fault tolerant.
B. POWER6 processors use HyperSocket technology.
C. POWER6 cores have a built in service processor.
D. POWER6 servers offer up to 10 partitions per core.
Answer: D
4. A company would like to consolidate many small applications with varying resource demands onto a midrange server with AIX6 to reduce system administration workload. What Power Systems technologies accomplish this objective?
A. SMT
B. Service Processor
C. Micro-partitioning
D. Partition Load Manager
Answer: C
5. A Bio Tech company is comparing HP and IBM servers for a HPC implementation. Which industry benchmark should be used to compare the system performance?
A. TPC-C
B. STREAM
C. SPECjbb
D. SPECfp2006
Answer: D
6. A customer has a need for high end graphics. Which of the following systems meets this need?
A. JS12
B. p575
C. p550
D. IntelliStation
Answer: D
7. A customer has two Sun v480 servers and plans to replace them with a Power Systems server. Which of the following can the customer use as an estimate of the relative performance between the existing servers and replacement server?
A. MIPS
B. RPE2
C. rPerf
D. ROLTP
Answer: B
8. An existing AIX 5.1 LPAR customer wants to move resources between logical partitions with minimal business disruption. Which of the following describes how this is done?
A. Implement DLPAR on AIX 5.1
B. Implement WPAR on AIX 5.3 or later
C. Implement DLPAR on AIX 5.3 or later
D. Implement Micropartitioning on AIX 5.1
Answer: C
9. A customer has three POWER4 servers and would like to replace them with a newer Power Systems server. What performance measurement should the customer use for comparison?
A. RPE2
B. ROLTP
C. rPerf
D. TPC-C
Answer: C
10. A customer currently has an 8-core p650 server with 64 GB memory that is nearing CPU capacity. Transaction processing requirements will nearly double in the next three years. There is a limited budget, but they need a new server now. Which of the following is the lowest-cost POWER6 option that would satisfy the requirements?
A. 520 2-core
B. 550 4-core
C. 570 8-core
D. JS22 Blade 4-core
Answer: B
000-330 Power Systems Technical Support for AIX and Linux
IBM 000-330 Exam - Cheat-Test.com
Free 000-330 Sample Questions:
1.The customer has a 7014B42, a 7014T00, and a 7014T42, each with available space. Which rack/racks support(s) the installation of the BladeCenter H?
A.7014B42
B.7014T00
C.7014T42
D.7014B42, and 7014T42
Answer: A
2.Which of the following supports a Linuxbased HA solution?
A.SE Linux
B.GPFS for Linux
C.Cluster Systems Manager (CSM)
D.PowerHA Cluster Manager for AIX and Linux
Answer: D
3.How can a company that is concerned about energy costs in the datacenter use Power servers to better manage energy usage?
A.Set energy management parameters with AEM
B.Set energy management parameters with IVM
C.Set energy management parameters within AIX
D.Set energy management parameters with the HMC
Answer: A
4.A customer is consolidating LAMP on Power. They would like to also consolidate Linux x86 OLTP applications. Which of the following should be discussed?
A.Requires PowerVM Lx86
B.Requires AIX 5.3 or later.
C.Native port is recommended
D.Enabled with the AIX Linux Toolkit
Answer: C
5.A large customer has many POWER4 servers that have been sized for their peak workload but are under utilized most of the time. They are at the end of their lease and want to purchase POWER6 servers. Which PowerVM technology will maximize their server utilization?
A.Workload Partitions
B.Partition Load Manager
C.Shared Processor Pools
D.Live Partition Mobility
Answer: C
6.Which of the following is a competitive advantage of IBM PowerVM compared to HP Integrity Virtual Machines (IVM)?
A.PowerVM provides the capability to support shared CPU, memory and I/O resources.
B.PowerVM Editions are supported on Power systems from low to highend servers and blade servers.
C.AIX and Linux interface directly with the hardware and the hardware ensures isolation is maintained.
D.Processing resources can be dynamically allocated and shared between logical partitions with PowerVM.
Answer: C
7.Which of the following does IBM Fix Central provide to customers?
A.Customer hotline for immediate dispatch of service personnel for critical issues.
B.Designated local service center for each customer location with a maintenance contract.
C.Subscription based onsite service agreement for regularly scheduled system maintenance.
D.Web site access to PTFs and updates for system software, hardware, and operating systems.
Answer: D
8.A mid market customer wants to compare Power Systems performance to HP PARISC performance from a complete systems perspective. Which performance metric should be used?
A.RPE2
B.SWAP
C.rPerf
D.SPECint 2006
Answer: A
9.How many network cards can be added to the JS12 and JS22 Blades?
A.JS12 = 1, JS22 = 1
B.JS12 = 2, JS22 = 2
C.JS12 = 1, JS22 = 2
D.JS12 = 2, JS22 = 1
Answer: B
10.Which of the following options for PowerHA Cluster Manager can help simplify implementation and configuration in a DB2 and WebSphere environment?
A.Smart Assist
B.Insight Utility
C.Virtual Image Manager
D.Cluster Systems Management
Answer: A
11.A customer has an 8core POWER6 570 with 4 active processors. They have dedicated partitions. They have occasional need for additional CPU capacity. They do not want permanent activations and want to have monthly post billing for usage. What type of CoD best meets their requirements?
A.Trial CoD allows short term processor and memory activations.
B.Utility CoD autonomically provides additional processor performance on a temporary basis.
C.On/Off CoD enables processors to be temporarily activated in fullday increments as needed.
D.Capacity Upgrade on Demand (CUoD) allows you to purchase additional processor capacity and dynamically activate it when needed.
Answer: C
12.Which of the following is the appropriate disk configuration for an application that requires faster writes over availability?
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 5
D.RAID 6
Answer: A
13.Which IBM technical resource provides guideance, installation and tmplementation examples?
A.IBM InfoCenter
B.IBM Sales Manual
C.IBM Installation Guides
D.IBM Technical Sales Library
Answer: A
14.Which of the following features of Active Energy Manager help customers save energy costs?
A.Power capping
B.Fan speed management
C.Active power leveling
D.Power regulator management
Answer: A
15.Which of the following correctly describes Utility Capacity on Demand?
A.Additional processors can be assigned to any partition and are billed to the customer as units of 1 day.
B.Additional processors can be assigned to any partition and are billed to the customer as units of 1 minute.
C.Additional processors are assigned to the shared processor pool and are billed to the customer as units of 1 day.
D.Additional processors are assigned to the shared processor pool and are billed to the customer as units of 1 minute.
Answer: D
IBM Certifications
DB2 IBM Cognos IBM Lotus IBM certifications Solution Advisor ...
Free 000-330 Sample Questions:
1.The customer has a 7014B42, a 7014T00, and a 7014T42, each with available space. Which rack/racks support(s) the installation of the BladeCenter H?
A.7014B42
B.7014T00
C.7014T42
D.7014B42, and 7014T42
Answer: A
2.Which of the following supports a Linuxbased HA solution?
A.SE Linux
B.GPFS for Linux
C.Cluster Systems Manager (CSM)
D.PowerHA Cluster Manager for AIX and Linux
Answer: D
3.How can a company that is concerned about energy costs in the datacenter use Power servers to better manage energy usage?
A.Set energy management parameters with AEM
B.Set energy management parameters with IVM
C.Set energy management parameters within AIX
D.Set energy management parameters with the HMC
Answer: A
4.A customer is consolidating LAMP on Power. They would like to also consolidate Linux x86 OLTP applications. Which of the following should be discussed?
A.Requires PowerVM Lx86
B.Requires AIX 5.3 or later.
C.Native port is recommended
D.Enabled with the AIX Linux Toolkit
Answer: C
5.A large customer has many POWER4 servers that have been sized for their peak workload but are under utilized most of the time. They are at the end of their lease and want to purchase POWER6 servers. Which PowerVM technology will maximize their server utilization?
A.Workload Partitions
B.Partition Load Manager
C.Shared Processor Pools
D.Live Partition Mobility
Answer: C
6.Which of the following is a competitive advantage of IBM PowerVM compared to HP Integrity Virtual Machines (IVM)?
A.PowerVM provides the capability to support shared CPU, memory and I/O resources.
B.PowerVM Editions are supported on Power systems from low to highend servers and blade servers.
C.AIX and Linux interface directly with the hardware and the hardware ensures isolation is maintained.
D.Processing resources can be dynamically allocated and shared between logical partitions with PowerVM.
Answer: C
7.Which of the following does IBM Fix Central provide to customers?
A.Customer hotline for immediate dispatch of service personnel for critical issues.
B.Designated local service center for each customer location with a maintenance contract.
C.Subscription based onsite service agreement for regularly scheduled system maintenance.
D.Web site access to PTFs and updates for system software, hardware, and operating systems.
Answer: D
8.A mid market customer wants to compare Power Systems performance to HP PARISC performance from a complete systems perspective. Which performance metric should be used?
A.RPE2
B.SWAP
C.rPerf
D.SPECint 2006
Answer: A
9.How many network cards can be added to the JS12 and JS22 Blades?
A.JS12 = 1, JS22 = 1
B.JS12 = 2, JS22 = 2
C.JS12 = 1, JS22 = 2
D.JS12 = 2, JS22 = 1
Answer: B
10.Which of the following options for PowerHA Cluster Manager can help simplify implementation and configuration in a DB2 and WebSphere environment?
A.Smart Assist
B.Insight Utility
C.Virtual Image Manager
D.Cluster Systems Management
Answer: A
11.A customer has an 8core POWER6 570 with 4 active processors. They have dedicated partitions. They have occasional need for additional CPU capacity. They do not want permanent activations and want to have monthly post billing for usage. What type of CoD best meets their requirements?
A.Trial CoD allows short term processor and memory activations.
B.Utility CoD autonomically provides additional processor performance on a temporary basis.
C.On/Off CoD enables processors to be temporarily activated in fullday increments as needed.
D.Capacity Upgrade on Demand (CUoD) allows you to purchase additional processor capacity and dynamically activate it when needed.
Answer: C
12.Which of the following is the appropriate disk configuration for an application that requires faster writes over availability?
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 5
D.RAID 6
Answer: A
13.Which IBM technical resource provides guideance, installation and tmplementation examples?
A.IBM InfoCenter
B.IBM Sales Manual
C.IBM Installation Guides
D.IBM Technical Sales Library
Answer: A
14.Which of the following features of Active Energy Manager help customers save energy costs?
A.Power capping
B.Fan speed management
C.Active power leveling
D.Power regulator management
Answer: A
15.Which of the following correctly describes Utility Capacity on Demand?
A.Additional processors can be assigned to any partition and are billed to the customer as units of 1 day.
B.Additional processors can be assigned to any partition and are billed to the customer as units of 1 minute.
C.Additional processors are assigned to the shared processor pool and are billed to the customer as units of 1 day.
D.Additional processors are assigned to the shared processor pool and are billed to the customer as units of 1 minute.
Answer: D
IBM Certifications
DB2 IBM Cognos IBM Lotus IBM certifications Solution Advisor ...
000-974 IBM Free Questions
Here is the link for free IBM 000-974 exam questions:
http://www.cheat-test.com/Samples/000-974-Exam.html
Just copied as following:
IBM 000-974 Exam - Cheat-Test.com
Free 000-974 Sample Questions:
1. A customer has a small application library which requires encryption. Management requires the solution to have minimal impact. Which of the following addresses the customer's requirements?
A. V6R1 Encrypted ASP feature
B. V6R1 Backup Encryption Feature with BRMS Advanced Feature.
C. LTO-4 tape drives using Application Mode Encryption and BRMS.
D. LTO-4 tape drives using Library Mode Encryption using EKM on IBM i.
Answer: B
2. What is the maximum number of LUNs supported by the 4GB dual port fibre adapters FC #5749 and FC #5774?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
Answer: C
3. Which of the following correctly describes IBM's recomendation for the highest level of disk protection available for IBM i on a JS12 blade in a BladeCenter S (BCS)?
A. BCS managed RAID-3
B. VIOS managed disk mirroring
C. IBM i managed disk mirroring
D. BCS managed mirroring (RAID-10)
Answer: C
4. Which of the following is the most practical method of doing a partial save of an i5/OS partition on a POWER Blade?
A. i5/OS save to virtual optical IMGCLG, FTP images to VIOS or another i5/OS
B. Replicate VIOS LUNs assigned to i5/OS; bring up separate i5/OS partition from copy
C. FlashCopy (full copy) VIOS LUNs assigned to i5/OS; bring up separate i5/OS partition from copy
D. i5/OS save to virtual optical in VIOS; FlashCopy VIOS virtual media LUNs and attach to 2nd VIOS
Answer: A
5. Which of the following SAN storage models are supported by VIOS in an i5/OS environment?
A. DS4700, DS4800, DS8100, and DS8300
B. DS3400, DS4100, DS4500, and DS8100
C. DS4700, DS4800, DS6800, and DS8100
D. DS3400, DS4500, DS6800, and DS8300
Answer: A
6. A customer with a Power 520 M25 system and single processor would like to activate a second processor for another IBM i LPAR which will run Domino only. Which of the following will allow them to purchase IBM i at a reduced price?
A. i5/OS External Access
B. i5/OS Application Server
C. i5/OS Domino Application Server
D. i5/OS Unlimited Collaboration Users
Answer: D
7. A customer is purchasing a new POWER6 520 M25 with four IBM i partitions. The customer wants to have one Ethernet port in each partition. What is the least expensive way to satisfy this request?
A. Install one FC #2849 Ethernet card in each partition
B. Install one FC #5706 dual port Ethernet card in each partition.
C. Install one FC #5624 four port IVE and allocate one port to each partition.
D. Install two FC #5623 two port IVEs and allocate one port to each partition.
Answer: C
8. Which of the following provides CPU sizing when adding Domino to an existing IBM i partition?
A. iDoctor
B. Service Agent
C. Patrol Predict
D. Workload Estimator
Answer: D
9. A customer is installing 3 iSCSI-attached System x servers. What is the minimum number of IP addresses necessary to deploy the iSCSI LAN segment, before considering user connectivity?
A. 11 (3 for RSA-II connections, 4 for HBA connections and 4 for point to point connections)
B. 12 (4 for RSA-II connections, 4 for HBA connections and 4 for point to point connections)
C. 16 (4 for RSA-II connections, 6 for HBA connections and 6 for point to point connections)
D. 18 (4 for RSA-II connections, 8 for HBA connections and 6 for point to point connections)
Answer: D
10. A customer has a 525 with an FC #0595 PCI-X Expansion tower with two partitions: Test and Development. The Test partition is contained in the FC #0595 and the development partition is completely contained in the 525
CEC. They recently installed a 570 and would like to move the Test partition from the 525 to the 570.
Which of the following is the most efficient way to move the Test partition and associated hardware to the 570?
A. Configure the partition on the HMC for the 570 and attach the FC #0595.
B. Attach the FC #0595 to the 570 and configure the partition with the HMC.
C. Attach the FC #0595, configure the partition on the HMC for the 570, slip install SLIC on the new partition.
D. Configure the partition on the HMC for the 570, attach the FC #0595, and slip install SLIC on the new partition.
Answer: B
http://www.cheat-test.com/Samples/000-974-Exam.html
Just copied as following:
IBM 000-974 Exam - Cheat-Test.com
Free 000-974 Sample Questions:
1. A customer has a small application library which requires encryption. Management requires the solution to have minimal impact. Which of the following addresses the customer's requirements?
A. V6R1 Encrypted ASP feature
B. V6R1 Backup Encryption Feature with BRMS Advanced Feature.
C. LTO-4 tape drives using Application Mode Encryption and BRMS.
D. LTO-4 tape drives using Library Mode Encryption using EKM on IBM i.
Answer: B
2. What is the maximum number of LUNs supported by the 4GB dual port fibre adapters FC #5749 and FC #5774?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
Answer: C
3. Which of the following correctly describes IBM's recomendation for the highest level of disk protection available for IBM i on a JS12 blade in a BladeCenter S (BCS)?
A. BCS managed RAID-3
B. VIOS managed disk mirroring
C. IBM i managed disk mirroring
D. BCS managed mirroring (RAID-10)
Answer: C
4. Which of the following is the most practical method of doing a partial save of an i5/OS partition on a POWER Blade?
A. i5/OS save to virtual optical IMGCLG, FTP images to VIOS or another i5/OS
B. Replicate VIOS LUNs assigned to i5/OS; bring up separate i5/OS partition from copy
C. FlashCopy (full copy) VIOS LUNs assigned to i5/OS; bring up separate i5/OS partition from copy
D. i5/OS save to virtual optical in VIOS; FlashCopy VIOS virtual media LUNs and attach to 2nd VIOS
Answer: A
5. Which of the following SAN storage models are supported by VIOS in an i5/OS environment?
A. DS4700, DS4800, DS8100, and DS8300
B. DS3400, DS4100, DS4500, and DS8100
C. DS4700, DS4800, DS6800, and DS8100
D. DS3400, DS4500, DS6800, and DS8300
Answer: A
6. A customer with a Power 520 M25 system and single processor would like to activate a second processor for another IBM i LPAR which will run Domino only. Which of the following will allow them to purchase IBM i at a reduced price?
A. i5/OS External Access
B. i5/OS Application Server
C. i5/OS Domino Application Server
D. i5/OS Unlimited Collaboration Users
Answer: D
7. A customer is purchasing a new POWER6 520 M25 with four IBM i partitions. The customer wants to have one Ethernet port in each partition. What is the least expensive way to satisfy this request?
A. Install one FC #2849 Ethernet card in each partition
B. Install one FC #5706 dual port Ethernet card in each partition.
C. Install one FC #5624 four port IVE and allocate one port to each partition.
D. Install two FC #5623 two port IVEs and allocate one port to each partition.
Answer: C
8. Which of the following provides CPU sizing when adding Domino to an existing IBM i partition?
A. iDoctor
B. Service Agent
C. Patrol Predict
D. Workload Estimator
Answer: D
9. A customer is installing 3 iSCSI-attached System x servers. What is the minimum number of IP addresses necessary to deploy the iSCSI LAN segment, before considering user connectivity?
A. 11 (3 for RSA-II connections, 4 for HBA connections and 4 for point to point connections)
B. 12 (4 for RSA-II connections, 4 for HBA connections and 4 for point to point connections)
C. 16 (4 for RSA-II connections, 6 for HBA connections and 6 for point to point connections)
D. 18 (4 for RSA-II connections, 8 for HBA connections and 6 for point to point connections)
Answer: D
10. A customer has a 525 with an FC #0595 PCI-X Expansion tower with two partitions: Test and Development. The Test partition is contained in the FC #0595 and the development partition is completely contained in the 525
CEC. They recently installed a 570 and would like to move the Test partition from the 525 to the 570.
Which of the following is the most efficient way to move the Test partition and associated hardware to the 570?
A. Configure the partition on the HMC for the 570 and attach the FC #0595.
B. Attach the FC #0595 to the 570 and configure the partition with the HMC.
C. Attach the FC #0595, configure the partition on the HMC for the 570, slip install SLIC on the new partition.
D. Configure the partition on the HMC for the 570, attach the FC #0595, and slip install SLIC on the new partition.
Answer: B
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)
